Answer:
1. Easing
2. A higher
Explanation:
An adverse inflation shock when modeled is the upward shift of the Short run aggregate supply curve, this brings about higher inflation and causes a lowering of output.
The self-correcting mechanism of the economy will cause inflation to decrease gradually until the economy is back in long-run equilibrium at the original level of inflation.
If there is an intervention with monetary easing, aggregate demand will shift forward and a long-run equilibrium will be established where inflation remains at the higher level.
Answer:
The adjustment to net income for the period will be reported as:
Debit Interest expense ($600 - $500) $100
Credit Interest payable $100
<em>(Being interest expense for the period)</em>
Explanation:
Interest payable is the accumulation of the interest expense in the balance sheet overa specific period of time agreed with the creditor. When it becomes payable, the interest payable account is debited while cash is credited.
The interest payable in the Coffee Cup Company's account increased from $500 (credit balance) to $600 credit balance. This means there would have been an additional $100 interest expense recorded during the period in order to increase it to $600.
Answer:
Ans. The current price of the stock is $135.13
Explanation:
Hi, first, we need to find the price of the stock in year 9, since in year 10 is when the company starts to pay dividends. I know it could sound weird, but due the nature of the following formula, all future cash flows are brought 1 period before the first payment, in our case, if the first dividend is going to be paid in year 10, all the future cash flows of the share (future dividends) are going to be brought to year 9. The formula as follows.
Things should look like this
So the present Value (in year 9) is $228.31, but we need it in the present, therefore, we have to use another formula to bring this value to present value, given the required rate of return.
Where:
Return: The required rate of return (discount rate)
n: number of years from zero.
Everything shold look like this.
So the current price of this stock is $135.13.
Best of luck.
Answer:
B) rs > WACC > rd.
Explanation:
The formula to compute WACC is shown below:
= Weightage of debt × cost of debt × ( 1- tax rate) + (Weightage of preferred stock) × (cost of preferred stock) + (Weightage of common stock) × (cost of common stock)
As we know that the risk of equity in comparison to debt is more. And the return in respect of equity is received as an interest whereas for the debt it is received as a dividend.
And, The WACC has come between debt and equity
Answer:
The answer is b. manager's overall performance is 20% above expectations.
Explanation:
The budget overall performance is: Budgeted Contribution margin - Budgeted Controllable fixed costs = 1,000,000 - 500,000 = $500,000;
The Actual overall performance is: Actual Contribution margin - Actual Controllable fixed costs = 1,050,000 - 450,000 = $600,000;
Variance in dollar term of actual overall performance over budget overall performance = $600,000 - $500,000 = $100,000
% variance of actual overall performance over budget overall performance = 100,000/500,000 = 20%
Thus, actual overall performance is 20% above expectation.
