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Reptile [31]
3 years ago
5

Fairweather Corporation purchases merchandise on terms of 2/15, net 40, and its gross purchases (i.e., purchases before taking o

ff the discount) are $800,000 per year. What is the maximum dollar amount of costly trade credit the firm could get, assuming it abides by the supplier's credit terms
Business
1 answer:
Kobotan [32]3 years ago
9 0

Answer:

The answer is $53,699

Explanation:

Discount = 2%

Discount days = 15 days

Net days = 40 days

Gross purchase is $800,000 per year

Discount on the purchase is $16,000(2% of $800,000)

Therefore net purchase is $784,000($800,000 - $16,000).

Net per day is:

Net purchase ÷ 365 days

$784,000 ÷ 365 days

= $2,147.95

Total trade credit = Net per day x Net days

$2,147.95 x 40 days = $85,918

Free credit = Net per day ×Discount days

=$2,147.95 x 15= $32,219

Therefore, Costly trade credit = Total credit −Free credit

$85,918 - $32,219

= $53,699

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A local university has a student population that is 55% male. 60% of students are undergraduates. 38% are both male and undergra
Mandarinka [93]

The probability that a randomly selected student is female and an undergraduate = 37%

The probability of being female or an undergraduate= 1.05

<h3>The male students</h3>

The male population = 55%

Therefore female population would be 1 - 0.55 = 45%

<u>Undergraduates</u> = 60%

The male undergraduate = 38%

Therefore female undergraduates = 60%-38%

= 22%

a. The probability that a randomly selected student is an undergraduate and female

= \frac{0.22}{0.60}

= 37%

B. The probability that the student is female or undergraduate

P(A or B)

= Probability of female = 45/100

Probability of undergraduate = 60/100

= 0.45 + 0.60

= 1.05

Read more on probability here:

brainly.com/question/25870256

4 0
2 years ago
If one-year nominal interest rate in the U.S. is 3%, while the one-year nominal interest rate in Australia is 5%. The spot rate
Mariana [72]

Answer:

to get 5,00,000 australian dollar at the forward rate we are goign to need 4,704,000 US dollars

Explanation:

spot x (1 + (US rate - Australia rate) x time)

0.96 x (1+(0.03-0.05)x1 year) =

0.96 x 0.98 = 0.9408 forward exchange rate

$5,000,000 Australian Dollar * 0.9408 = 4,704,000 US dollars

3 0
3 years ago
What does it take for a consumer boycott to be successful?
oksano4ka [1.4K]

Answer: IT'S C!!

Someone said it's b but it's not i just got it wrong

8 0
3 years ago
Under what circumstance might you receive a tax refund from the IRS?
Softa [21]
This means that the tax you owe is less than what you paid for your taxes. Another circumstance is when you are entitled to tax credits. IRS stands of Internal Revenue Service. The circumstance in which you might receive a tax refund from the IRS if you have paid more in taxes than you owed for the year.
3 0
3 years ago
A job can be done with Machine A that costs $12,500 and has annual end-of-year maintenance costs of $5000; its salvage value aft
sdas [7]

Answer and Explanation :

As per the data given in the question,

Present value = Amount ÷ (1 + r)^n

Machine A

Year           Amount        Discount Factor      PV

1                  $5,000           1.05                  $4,761.90

2                $5,000                                     $4,535.15

3               $5,000                                      $4,319.19

Total                                                          $13,616.24

Now

Present value of salvage value =$2,000 ÷ 1.05^3 = $1,727.68

Present worth of Machine A is

= -$12,500 - $13,616.24 + $1,727.68

= -$24,388.56

Similarly Present worth of Machine B = -$15,000 - $4,000 ÷ 1.05 -$4,000 ÷ (1.05)^2 - $4,000 ÷ 1.05^3 - $4,000 ÷ 1.05^4 + $1,500 ÷ 1.05^4

=-$24,658.94

Based on the comparison between Machine A and Machine B

Machine A is better because it has higher present worth

Annual worth:

For machine A = -$12,500(A/PA,5%,3) -$5,000+$2,000(A/F,5%,3)

=-$12,500 × 0.367 - $5,000 + $2,000 × 0.317

= -$8,953.5

For Machine B:

=  -$15,000(A/P,5%,4) - $4,000 + $1,500(A/F,5%,4)

= -$7,882.16

Based on the comparison between Machine A and Machine B

Machine B is better because it has higher annual worth

Capitalized cost:

Machine A :

= -$12,500+$2,000(P/F,5%,3) - $5,000 ÷ 0.05

=  -$12,500 + $2,000 × 0.86 - $5,000 ÷ 0.05

= -$110,772

Machine B :

=-$15,000(P/F,5%,4) - $4000 ÷ 0.05

=-$15,000 × 0.82 - $4,000 ÷ 0.05

= -$93,765.9

Based on the comparison between Machine A and Machine B

Machine B is better because it has lower capitalized cost

3 0
3 years ago
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