The sample standard deviation of this dataset is =19.1.
The Standard deviation is a degree of the amount of variant or dispersion of a set of values. A low widespread deviation indicates that the values tend to be near the mean of the set, at the same time as a high widespread deviation indicates that the values are spread out over a much wider variety.
x x- \bar x=x-101 (x-ˉx)2
96 -5 25
125 24 576
80 -21 441
110 9 81
75 -26 676
100 -1 1
121 20 400
∑x=707 ∑(x-\bar x)=0 ∑(x-\bar x)2=2200
Mean \bar x =∑x/n
=96+125+80+110+75+100+121/7
=707/7
=101
Sample standard deviation S=√∑(x-\bar x)2/n-1
=√2200/6
=√366.6667
=19.1
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Answer:
Option C.
Explanation:
From the scenario presented above, Golden is not in any way liable for the inability to supply the total quantity of the 6-ounce yogurt containers, therefore, Golden can choose to reject the delivery of the 8-ounce containers.
Also, Golden can give Food Packaging a reasonable amount of time to enable them replace the containers, of Golden is not in a hurry to begin production and packaging.
Explanation:
it is a document given by the supplier,which contains
information on the quality,PRICE of goods sold
also date
well this is what ik,so hope it helps ig
Answer:
The current value of a perpetuity is based more on the discounted value of its nearer (in time) cash flows and less by the discounted value of its more distant (in the future) cash flows.
Explanation:
The perpetuities can becalculate as follow
C/rate = Perpetuities
the reasoning behind this formula:

If we calculate limit whe ntime is infite,
because at more time 1 + r gets closer and closer to 0
we get on the dividend
1 - 0
So we have C x 1/i = C/i
Next part would be why the first cash flow is more relevant than the subsequent cash flow:

Here if time increases, then the divisor get closer to ∞ so we have
P ( a constant) /∞ = 0
So the first cashflow is more relevant than the more distant cash flow