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Ann [662]
3 years ago
6

What is paid first before the balance on a credit card?

Business
1 answer:
AysviL [449]3 years ago
7 0
Interest has to be paid...
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Schell Company manufactures automobile floor mats. It currently has two product lines, the Standard and the Deluxe. Suppose that
Yakvenalex [24]

Answer and Explanation:

The computation is shown below:

1. The activity rate for each cost pool is

Material handling ($2,300) ÷ (50 + 50) = $23.00

Quality Control ($8,763) ÷ ($570  + 700) = $6.90

Machine Maintenance ($14,360)  ÷ (3,090 + 4,090) = $2.00

2    

Total overhead assigned to the standard floor mat line is

= $23 × 40 + $6.9 × 570 + $2 × 3,090

= $1,150 + $3,933 + $6,180

= $11,263.00

3    

Total overhead assigned to deluxe product line

= $23 × 50 +  $6.9 × 700 + $2 × 4,090

= $1,150 + $4,830 + $8,180

= $14,160.00

3 0
3 years ago
. Brown Office Supplies recently reported $18,500 of sales, $8,250 of operating costs other than depreciation, and $1,750 of dep
Degger [83]

Answer:

Option (C) is correct.

Explanation:

EBT means Earnings Before Tax, so you ignore the tax rate for this problem.

Then solve for the EBT figure.

EBT:

= Revenue - Operating costs - Depreciation  - interest

= $18,500 - $8,250 -  $1,750 -  ($9,000 x 7%)

= $18,500 - $8,250 -  $1,750 -  $630

= $7,870

Therefore, $7,870  was the firm's earnings before taxes (EBT).

5 0
3 years ago
Which of the following would result if the business purchased supplies on credit? A)Supplies would increase, and Cash would decr
klasskru [66]
I think the answer is C
3 0
4 years ago
A quality analyst wants to construct a control chart for determining whether four machines, all producing the same product, are
abruzzese [7]

Answer:

A) 0.023

Explanation:

Sample size = 1,000

Number of defectives collected from Machine #1 = 23

So, the sample proportion of defectives for machine #1 = Number of defective output / Sample size  = 23/1000 = 0.023

6 0
3 years ago
6. Asset 1 has an expected mean return of µ1 =9%, standard deviation of its return is σ1 = 6%. Asset 2 has an expected mean retu
Paraphin [41]

Answer:

Weight w1 = 0.65

Weight w2 = 0.35

Expected return =10.75%

Explanation:

w1 + w2 = 1 ........... (1)

w1 = SD of asset 2/(SD of asset 1 + SD of asset 2)

w1 = 11 ÷ (6 + 11) ⇒ 0.65

∴ w2 = 1 - w1 ⇒ 1 - 0.65

w2 = 0.35

Expected return = Weighted average

[0.65 × 9] + [0.35 × 14] ⇒ 10.75%

4 0
4 years ago
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