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mr_godi [17]
1 year ago
5

An investment adviser would be considered to have custody of client funds if it:___.

Business
1 answer:
Nutka1998 [239]1 year ago
7 0

However, if you instruct a custodian or third party to transfer the money and you hold a check made by the client and payable to the advisor, the advisor will keep the client's money.

SEC-registered investment advisors who hold client funds or securities in custody are required to protect those funds under the SEC's custody rules. Custody Rules provide investors with additional protection against theft or embezzlement by investment advisors,

Managers of private equity funds and other private investment funds registered as investment advisers with the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (the Advisers Act) are subject to regulation 206(4). -2 must be adhered to. custody rules.

Learn more about adviser at

brainly.com/question/13628349

#SPJ4

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atroni [7]

Answer:

D. have separate cost allocation rates for each activity identified by the company CORRECT

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Explanation:

A. have the same cost allocation system as plantwide and departmental cost allocation systems

NO If it was, then it would not have a different name

B. have no cost allocation rates for each activity identified by the company

If we don't have rates to distrubte cost then, the allocation will be arbitrary

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Explanation:

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In 1972, computer scientist ________ recognized that digital devices would change the world as they evolved and became widely us
marishachu [46]
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5 0
3 years ago
Your boss leaves you a note, asking you to determine the present value of a $1,200,000 payment to be made in six years assuming
shtirl [24]

Answer:

so value of the mistake is $311685.71

Explanation:

given data

present value = $1,200,000

time = 6 year

discount rate = 18%

discount rate = 8%

to find out

What is the dollar value of the mistake

solution

we get here present value that is express as for both rate that is

present value = \frac{FV}{(1+r)^t}

put here value

present value =  \frac{1200000}{(1+0.18)^6}

present value 1 = $444517.85

and

present value =  \frac{1200000}{(1+0.08)^6}

present value 2 = $756203.55

so

difference is $756203.55 - $444517.85

difference is = $311685.71

so value of the mistake is $311685.71

7 0
3 years ago
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