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1 year ago

An investment adviser would be considered to have custody of client funds if it:___.

1 answer:

Nutka1998 [239]1 year ago

7 0

However, if you instruct a custodian or third party to transfer the money and you hold a check made by the client and payable to the advisor, the advisor will keep the client's money.

SEC-registered investment advisors who hold client funds or securities in custody are required to protect those funds under the SEC's custody rules. Custody Rules provide investors with additional protection against theft or embezzlement by investment advisors,

Managers of private equity funds and other private investment funds registered as investment advisers with the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (the Advisers Act) are subject to regulation 206(4). -2 must be adhered to. custody rules.

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In light of persistent ____________, growing ____________ and the tendency by some firms and industries to seek legislative redr

Vinil7 [7]

Answer:

The answer is:

Trade deficit;

Foreign Direct Investment;

Restrict.

Explanation:

In light of persistent TRADE DEFICIT , growing FOREIGN DIRECT INVESTMENT and the tendency by some firms and industries to seek legislative redress for failures in the marketplace, the US Congress in the past two decades has increasingly been willing to provide the president with more powers to RESTRICT trade.

Trade deficit occurs when a country import more goods than what she is exporting. Trade deficit makes infant industries im the home country less competitive.

Foreign Direct Investment is the ownership of business in another country.

Restricting trade can makes home infant industries more competitive.

3 0

3 years ago

The criteria that parties to a contract must be in agreement is also known as

irga5000 [103]

Answer:

C: Mutual Assent.

Explanation:

Mutual assent is a legal term which represents an agreement by both parties to a contract. When two parties to a contract both have an understanding of the parameters, terms and conditions surrounding a contract, it ultimately implies that they are in agreement; this is generally referred to as mutual assent.

Hence, the criteria that parties to a contract must be in agreement is also known as mutual assent.

<em>In a nutshell, mutual assent connotes agreement, acceptance and consent to a contract by both parties. </em>

7 0

3 years ago

John Williams, manager of Phoenix Entertainment, wants to compute the variable overhead efficiency variance for the year. He has

jenyasd209 [6]

Answer:

$10,125 Favorable

Actual quantity of the cost-allocation base used - Actual quantity of the cost-allocation base that should have been used to produce the actual output) × Budgeted variable overhead cost per unit of the cost-allocation base

Explanation:

Variable overhead spending variance = Actual Spending - budgeted Spending based on actual quantity

Variable overhead spending variance = (Actual Input x Actual rate) - ( Actual input x Budgeted rate)

Variable overhead spending variance = (10,125 x $29) - ( 10,125 x $30)

Variable overhead spending variance = $293,625 - $303,750

Variable overhead spending variance = $10,125 Favorable

Variable overhead spending variance is

4 0

2 years ago

Electronic Distribution has a defined benefit pension plan. Characteristics of the plan during 2021 are as follows: ($ millions)

ruslelena [56]

Answer:

Please see below

Explanation:

1. Calculate the pension expense for 2021.

($ millions)

Service cost. $50

Interest cost. $30

Expected return on the plan assets

(1,300 × 6%). ($78)

Amortization of prior service cost $

Amortization of net gain or loss - AOCI $

Pension expense $2

2. Journal expense to record pension expense, gains or losses, prior service cost, funding and payment of benefits for 2021.

Pension expense. Dr $2

Plan assets [expected return on assets] Dr $78

To PBO (50 + 30) Cr $80

(To record the pension expense)

Prior service cost - OCI Dr $18

To PBO Cr $18

(To record the prior service cost)

PBO Dr $36

To Gain - OCI Cr $36

(To record the gain from change in actuarial assumption)

Loss- OCI [1,300 × 6%] - ($23). Dr $55

To Plan assets Cr. $55

(To record the gain or loss on assets)

Plan assets. Dr $40

To Cash Cr. $40

(To record the funding)

PBO Dr $46

To Plan assets. Cr 46

(To record the retiree benefits)

3. What amount will electronic distribution report in its 2021 balance sheet as a net pension asset or net pension liability.

PBO balance, Jan 1 $530

Service cost. $50

Interest cost. $30

Gain from change in actuarial assumption. ($36)

Prior service cost(New). $18

Benefit paid ($46)

PBO balance, December 31. $546

Plan assets balance, Jan 1. $300

Actual return on plan assets $23

Contributions $40

Benefits paid ($46)

Plan assets balance, December 31 $317

PBO balance, December 31 $546

Plan assets balance, December 31 $317

Net pension liability. $229

4 0

3 years ago

Consider two scenarios for a nation's economic growth. Scenario A has real GDP growing at an average annual rate of 3.5 percent;

WARRIOR [948]

Answer:

20 years (scenario A) and 16 years (scenario B)

Explanation:

The real GDP will double in "n" number of years, with "n" estimated by interpolation using the formula below.

$current GDP * (1+Growth Rate)^{n} = 2 * current GDP$

In the solutions below, we assumed current GDP to be 1, and as a result, the GDP will double to 2.

Scenario A

$1 * (1+0.35)^{n} =2$

When you substitute 20 for "n" in the left hand side (LHS) of the equation, you will arrive at 1.99 which is approximately equal to 2. Any number below 20 will result in a number less than 2.

Thus, with an average annual real GDP growth rate of 3.5%, real GDP will double in about 20 years.

Scenario B

$1 * (1+0.45)^{n} =2$

When you substitute 16 for "n" in the left hand side (LHS) of the equation, you will arrive at 2.02 which is approximately equal to 2. Any number below 16 will result in a number less than 2.

Thus, with an average annual real GDP growth rate of 4.5%, real GDP will double in about 16 years.

6 0

2 years ago