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Marysya12 [62]
3 years ago
15

Is f of x always equal to g of x

Mathematics
1 answer:
Mars2501 [29]3 years ago
3 0

Of course not. 

' f(x) ' is the description of a function,and ' g(x) ' is the description of
a function.  There are an infinite number of different possible functions,
so f(x) and g(x) are usually not the same one.

f(x) is equal to g(x) for any 'x' only when the two descriptions are the
same function.  Otherwise f(x) is equal to g(x) only at the points where
their graphs intersect.
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Answer:

Our score = 0.60, Amanda's score = 0.25

Step-by-step explanation:

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z- score for X = 16 is (From z table)

z = (X - μ)/σ = (16 - 15)/4 = 0.25

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z = (325-310)/25 = 0.60

Since our z score is better than Amanda's z score, we can say we did better

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Step-by-step explanation:

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Picture 1  a° = a°  they are the same

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Picture 3 + 4  Let the obtuse angle MOQ = 2x.  

Using the circle theorem, the angle at the centre is twice   the angle at the circumference.

Therefore picture 4 tells us and proves;

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Picture 5

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Picture 6

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Picture 7

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