Answer: 18+36=$54
Step-by-step explanation: The first week that she was sick, she walked dogs 2 times, meaning she would earn $18 (2*9=18).
The second week when she walked dogs 4 times, she'd earn $36 (4*9=36).
The probability of an event is expressed as

Given:

The probability of drwing two blue balls one after the other is expressed as

For the first draw:

For the second draw, we have only 1 blue ball left out of a total of 6 balls (since a blue ball with drawn earlier).
Thus,

The probability of drawing two blue balls one after the other is evaluted as

The probablity that none of the balls drawn is blue is evaluted as

Hence, the probablity that none of the balls drawn is blue is evaluted as
-2
Mark brainliest please
Hope this helps you
Answer:
Hello, mizuki here to help!
The correct answer would be C
Step-by-step explanation:
Ok, so the total of homework he got was 50, and the number of homework he got in monday was 16.
So.... it should be expressed as 16/50 which would be 0.32
Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:
Solution :
Here, 12 - 8 = 4
15 - 11 = 4
18 - 14 = 4
27 - 23 = 4
Thus, every divisor is greater than its remainder by 4. So, the required smallest number is the difference of the L.C.M of the given number and 4
<u>Finding </u><u>the</u><u> </u><u>L.C</u><u>.</u><u>M</u>
First of find the prime factors of each numbers
12 = 2 × 2 × 3
15 = 3 × 5
18 = 3 × 3 × 3
27 = 3 × 3 × 3
Take out the common prime factors : 3 , 3 and 3
Also take out the other remaining prime factors : 2 , 2 and 5
Now, Multiply those all prime factors and obtain L.C.M
L.C.M = Common factors × Remaining factors
= 3 × 3 × 3 × 2 × 2 × 5
= 540
L.C.M of 12 , 15 , 18 and 27 = 540
So, The required smallest number = 540 - 4
= 536
Hope I helped!
Best regards!!