A fluid ounce (the measurement for liquids) has 8 of them in one cup. So, a cup has 8 fluid oz.
A pint consists of two cups. We know that a cup has 8oz, so two of them have 16oz. Also, 16oz are equivalent a pint or two cups. Hope this helps!
Answer: (c)
Step-by-step explanation:
Given
The inequality is
Solving the above inequality
Thus, option (c) is correct.
Answer:
about 26 feet
Step-by-step explanation: for an approximate result, multiply the meters value by 3.281
I would have to go with A on this one.