Binomial distribution because:
Trials are Bernoulli (affected or not)
Probability is known (p=0.05) and remains constant for all trials.
Number of trials is known (n=6).
P(x)=C(n,x)p^x*(1-p)^(n-x)
x=0 =>
P(0)=C(6,0)(0.05^0)(0.95^6)
=0.7351.... (approximately)
Hello!
First you have to find out how many hours she works
She worked 8 hours a day for 5 days
8 * 5 = 40
Divide this by the money she earned
720 / 40 = 18
The answer is $18 an hour
Hope this helps!
Answer:
15 is the area
Step-by-step explanation:
2(5m+4)=2(3m-10)
10m+8= 6m-20
-6m -6m
4m+8= -20
-8 -8
4m= -28
m = -7