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3 years ago

3×2+6÷2easy points so just answer it

Mathematics

2 answers:

Sonja [21]3 years ago

6 0

Your answer is 9 and idk how

Calculator does it all.

irinina [24]3 years ago

4 0

Hi there!

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

This question is about pemdas.

P-parenthesis

E-exponents

M-multiply

D-divide

A-add

S-subtract

*its should be go left to right.*

multiply and divide from left to right.

6+6/2

6+3

Hope this helps!

-Charlie

Have a great day!

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Can anyone help me please

Lena [83]

Answer:

$55.24

Step-by-step explanation:

Add $32.78 + $27.24 + $5.22

= 65.24

Subtract 10

= $55.24

4 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Rectangle ABCD is similar to rectangle RSTU .

Alenkasestr [34]

Answer:

The scale factor of a dilation from ABCD to RSTU is $\frac{1}{2}$

Step-by-step explanation:

We know that the rectangle ABCD is similar to rectangle RSTU.

Given that in rectangle ABCD the longest sides are DC and AB and in the rectangle RSTU the longest sides are UT and RS ⇒ The scale factor of a dilation will transform the sides DC and AB into UT and RS

Working with the lengths of the sides :

DC.(Scale factor) = UT

AB.(Scale factor) = RS

Replacing with the values of the lengths (Scale factor : SF) :

$DC.SF=UT\\(90ft).(SF)=45ft\\SF=\frac{45ft}{90ft} \\SF=\frac{1}{2}$

$AB.SF=RS\\(90ft).(SF)=45ft\\SF=\frac{45ft}{90ft} \\SF=\frac{1}{2}$

Notice that the scale factor is dimensionless.

We can verify this result with the sides AD and BC :

$AD.SF=UR\\50ft.(\frac{1}{2})=25ft\\ 25ft=25ft$

$BC.SF=TS\\50ft.(\frac{1}{2})=25ft\\ 25ft=25ft$

The scale factor (SF) is $\frac{1}{2}$

7 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Triangle L M N is cut by line segment O P. Line segment O P goes from side M L to side M N. The length of O L is 14, the length

lions [1.4K]

Answer:

The value of y that would make O P parallel to L N = 36

Step-by-step explanation:

This is a question on similar triangles. Find attached the diagram obtained from the given information.

Given:

The length of O L = 14

the length of O M = 28

the length of M P = y

the length of P N = 18

Length MN = MP + PN = y + 18

Length ML = MO + OL = 28+14 = 42

For OP to be parallel to LN,

MO/ML = MP/PN

MO/ML = 28/42

MP/PN= y/(y+18)

28/42 = y/(y+18)

42y = 28(y+18)

42y = 28y + 18(28)

42y-28y = 504

14y = 504

y = 504/14 = 36

The value of y that would make O P parallel to L N = 36

8 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

A random sample of size 13 is selected from men with hypertension. For each person, systolic blood pressure was measured right b

Tresset [83]

Answer:

Yes, hypertension drugs lowers blood pressure.

Step-by-step explanation:

Claim: The hypertension medicine lowered blood pressure.

The null and alternative hypothesis is

H0:\mu_{d}\geq 0

H1:\mu_{d}< 0

Level of significance = 0.05

Sample size = n = 13

Sample mean of difference = \bar{d} = 10.1

Sample standard deviation of difference = s_{d} = 11.2

Test statistic is

t=\frac{\bar{d}}{s_{d}/\sqrt{n}}

t = ((10.1) / (11.2 /squre root of 13)) = 3.251

Degrees of freedom = n - 1 = 13 - 1 = 12

Critical value =2.179( Using t table)

Test statistic | t | > critical value we reject null hypothesis.

In Conclusion: The hypertension medicine lowered blood pressure

6 0

3 years ago

In an experiment Tom drops 12 drawing pins onto a hard floor. He does the experiment 10 times and counts how many pins land 'poi

Phoenix [80]

Answer:

a) 0.35

b) 420 drawing pins

Step-by-step explanation:

a) The question relates to the relative frequency of the pins pointing up which is found by the formula as follows;

$Relative \ frequency = \dfrac{Number \ of \ successful \ trials }{Total \ number \ of \ trials}$

The total number of pins land 'point up' = 3 + 5 + 6 + 2 + 4 + 7 + 3 + 3 + 4 + 5

The total number of pins land 'point up' = 42 successful trials

Total number of trials = 12 × 10 = 120 trials

$Relative \ frequency = \dfrac{42 }{120}= \dfrac{7}{20}$

Due to the large number of trials, the relative frequency ≈ Probability and the probability that a single pin will land point up = 7/20 = 0.35

b) Given that the number of trials now = 12 × 100 = 1200, we have;

The expected number of drawing pins in total that would land point up = 0.35×1200 = 420 pins.

7 0

3 years ago