That answer is x≤−8
Inequality:
8x−8≤−72
Step number 1: You have to Add 8 to both sides.
8x−8+8≤−72+8
8x≤−64
Step number 2: You have to Divide both sides by 8.
8x
/8 ≤ −64
/ 8
Ur Answer:
x≤−8
Hope this helps :)
Answer:
76 percent done.
Step-by-step explanation:
Reasoning for this if its 76/100 you know that it will be 76. Or im Just got confused.
Answer:
<u><em>Part A:</em></u> D. 
<u><em>Part B:</em></u> C. 
Step-by-step explanation:
For part A) we just have to plug in 0 for x and solve for y until we find the equation that says 3 is the value for y when x is 0. For purposes of speeding up the process the correct answer is D. I will show how to check for it now.
The equation: 
Now plug in 0 for x.

Now solve.
y = (1)(3)
y = 3
This proves that this is the correct answer.
For part B) we just have to plug in the give values for x separately and check for each value of x that it equals 0. For the purpose of speeding up the process the correct answer is C. I will show how to check for it now.
The equation: 
Now plug in x for 0 and solve:



This equation is true, now we check for the other value of x, 3.



This is also true so that means this is the correct answer.
(a) The probability of drawing a blue marble at random from a given box is the number of blue marbles divided by the total number of marbles. We assume that the probability of selecting one of two boxes at random is 1/2 for each box.
... P(blue) = P(blue | box1)·P(box1) + P(blue | box2)·P(box2) = (3/8)·(1/2) + (4/6)·(1/2)
... P(blue) = 25/48 . . . . probability the ball is blue
(b) P(box1 | blue) = P(blue & box1)/P(blue) = (P(blue | box1)·P(box1)/P(blue)
... = ((3/8)·(1/2))/(25/48)
... P(box1 | blue) = 9/25 . . . . probability a blue ball is from box 1
I have to say the answer is C