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3 years ago

Which of the following are NOT included in the formal financial analysis of a capital budgeting program?

Business

1 answer:

enot [183]3 years ago

5 0

Answer: Option B

Explanation: Capital budgeting refers to the process in which an analyst tries to evaluate whether a long term investment will be profitable for the organisation or not.

In the capital budgeting process, only the quantitative aspects of a project will be taken into consideration and qualitative aspects such as quality and work space safety are not considered.

Hence from the above we can conclude that the right option is B.

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Rashan's family is always telling him he's worthless and will never be successful at anything he does. Eventually, he reaches a

Ivenika [448]

Answer:

Self-esteem

Explanation:

Self-esteem is a person's evaluation of their worth. This evaluation is subjective as it may not be based on reality. Self-esteem is influenced by one's environment including peer groups, family, and coworkers.

Self-esteem induces the following feelings: shame, despair, pride, and triumph. It determines if a person likes themselves or not. People with high self-esteem are happy and comfortable with themselves, while those with low self-esteem are often depressed.

Rashan's self-esteem has gone low as he now believes what his family is telling him. That he is worthless.

7 0

3 years ago

The differences between career and non career

swat32

A career is something that can last forever well a non career is a thing that can end quickly

6 0

3 years ago

Determine the (a) working capital, (b) current ratio, and (c) quick ratio. Round ratios to one decimal place.The following data

kramer

Answer:

a. The working capital is $625,000

b. The current ratio is 2.82

c. The quick ratio is 2.08

Explanation:

In order to calculate the working capital first we need to calculate the Current Assets and the Current Liablities as follows:

Current Assets = Cash + Accounts receivable + Inventory + Prepaid Expenses + Temporary investments

= 154,000+210,000+240,000+15,000+350,000

=$969,000

Current Liablities = Accounts payble + Accrued liablities + Income tax payable + Notes payable,short term

= 245000+4000+10000+85000

=$344,000

a. Therefore, working capital = Current Assets - Current liabilities

= 969000 - 344000

= $625,000

b. To calculate the current ratio we have to use the following formula:

current ratio = Current Assets / Current liabilities

=969,000 /344,000

= 2.82

c. To calculate the quick ratio we have to use the following formula:

quick ratio = (Cash + Accounts receivable + Temporary investments ) / Current liabilities

= (154,000+210,000+350,000) / 344,000

= 2.08

7 0

3 years ago

Natalie wants to make a 25% profit on her $70,000 land investment (there is no mortgage). She figures agents charge a 6% commiss

Ksju [112]

Natalie wants to make a 25% profit on a $70000 sale. That would be:

(125 ÷ 100) × 70000 = $87500.

Natalie wants to make $87500. But the agent would charge a 6% for the sale, Natalie will add a 6% to the $87500, that would be:

(106 ÷ 100) * 87500 = $92750.

On this $92750, there's a closing cost of $1200,

Add $92750 + $1200 = $93950.

$93950 to the nearest hundred will be $94000.

Natalie should make the final sale price $94000 in order to make a profit of %25.

7 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Sonny's BBQ Company recently issued $85 par value preferred stock that pays an annual dividend of $9. Analysts estimate that the

Bond [772]

Answer:

Intrinsic value=$73.77

Explanation:

The Dividend Valuation Model(DVM) is a technique used to value the worth of an asset.

According to this model, the value of an asset is the sum of the present values of the future cash flows would that arise from the asset discounted at the required rate of return.

Price = D/Kp

D- Dividend payable

Kp- cost of preferred stock

So will need to work out the cost of equity using CAPM

The capital asset pricing model (CAPM): relates the price of a share to the market risk or systematic risk. The systematic risk is that which affects all the all the economic agents, e.g inflation, interest rate e.t.c

This model is considered superior to DVM. Hence, we will use the CAPM

Using the CAPM , the expected return on a asset is given as follows:

E(r)= Rf +β(Rm-Rf)

E(r) =? , Rf- 2.4%, Rm- 12.1% β- 1.01

E(r) = 2.4% + 1.23×(12.1- 2.4)% = 12.20 %

Cost of preferred stock= 12.20 %

Using the dividend valuation model

Intrinsic value = 9/0.1220=73.77

Intrinsic value=$73.77

5 0

3 years ago