Answer:
f(2) = -2
Step-by-step explanation:
plug in 2 to wherever x is in this statement:
f(2) = -2(2^2) - 2(2) + 10
f(2) = -2(4) - 4 + 10
f(2) = -8 - 4 + 10
f(2) = -2
Answer:
1/4
Step-by-step explanation:
Turn 2 1/2 into an improper fraction
5/2
Flip 5/2 to 2/5
Multiply 5/8 by 2/5
The answer is 10/40
Simplify
1/4
Hope this helped :)
Break it down into two parts. First, what is the probability of drawing a blue marble on the first draw?Since there are 5 blue marbles and 10 total, the probability is 5⁄10, or 1/2. Now since we no longer have that blue marble, there are 4 blue marbles and 9 total. The chances of drawing a blue marble are 4/9. Therefore, the chance that both marbles drawn are blue is the chance that the first one is blue times the chance that the second one is blue. 1/2 * 4/9 = 4/18 = 2/9 Remember, math is always trying to trick you. It wants you to try and do the whole big problem at once, which can be difficult. Break it down into smaller problems, then use your answers to small parts to find the answer to the big question. Hope that helps,
The answer would be 1 83/99
since any repeating number has to be /9(depends on how many digits)
