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deff fn [24]
3 years ago
15

2 A change in the genes of a species over a long period of time.

Mathematics
2 answers:
shepuryov [24]3 years ago
7 0
This is a very vague question. there are several correct answers including development, mutations, divergence, etc.
be more specific.
Blizzard [7]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

There is no question..?

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If an event has a 55% chance of happening in one trial, how do I determine the chances of it happening more than once in 4 trial
aev [14]

The chances of it happening more than once in 4 trials is 13%

<h3>How to determine the number</h3>

From the information given, we have can deduce that;

Probability of 1 trial = 55%

= 55/ 100

Find the ratio

= 0. 55

We are to find the probability of it happening more than once in 4 different trials

If the probability of it happening in one trial is 555 which equals 0. 55

Then the probability of it happening in 1 in 4 trials is given as;

P(1/4 trials) = 1/ 4 × 55%

P(1/4 trials) = 1/ 4 × 0. 55

Put in decimal form

P(1/4 trials) = 0. 25 × 0. 55

P(1/4 trials) = 0. 138

But we have to know the percentage

= 0. 138 × 100

Multiply the values, we have

= 13. 8 %

Thus, the chances of it happening more than once in 4 trials is 13%

Learn more about probability here:

brainly.com/question/24756209

#SPJ1

6 0
2 years ago
Grace had $51 when she browsed an on-line store, which sells a pair of green earrings for $9.00 each plus a one-time $6.00 shipp
vitfil [10]

Answer:

5 Green earrings

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that:

Total amount held = $51

Cost per pair of green earrings = $9

One time shipping fee = $6

How many pairs of green earrings did grace purchase?

Let the number of green earrings purchased = g

Then,

$9*g + $6 = $51

$9g + $6 = $51

$9g = $51 - $6

$9g = $45

g = $45 / $9

g = 5

Hence, the number of green earrings purchased = 5

4 0
3 years ago
What fraction of 1 pint is 1 cup
Aleonysh [2.5K]
<span>The answer is that the fraction of 1/2 pint is 1 cup. To solve this you must know the equivalence between pints and cups, and use the notion of proportions. Two cups equal one pint. Then you can state this proportion: 1 pint / 2 cups = x pint / 1 cup. When you solve for x you get: x = 1/2. Which means that 1 cup is 1/2 of 1 pint. </span>
8 0
3 years ago
What is the value of ?<br> –4<br> –2<br> 2<br> 4
Nastasia [14]
I think its -2
or 2
♡☆
7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
-4x - 2 = -18 POR FA AYUDENME
charle [14.2K]

Answer:

The answer is x=4

Step-by-step explanation:

so you have -4x-2=-18

so we get rid of -2 by adding it to the other side so you'll end up having -4x=-16

you then divide that by -4 on both sides and get x=4 as your remaining answer

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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