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kherson [118]
3 years ago
14

A bag contains $3$ white chips and $3$ red chips. you repeatedly draw a chip at random from the bag. if it's white, you set it a

side; if it's red, you put it back in the bag. after removing all $3$ white chips, you stop. what is the expected number of times you will draw from the bag?
Mathematics
1 answer:
Natasha2012 [34]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

8.5

Step-by-step explanation:

We can divide this experiment in three parts.

  • Before removing any white chip
  • After ramoving one white chip, and before removing two
  • After removing two white chips

For the first experiment, for each extraction we will always have 3 white chips and 3 red chips, becuase if we extract a red chip, then we put it back in the bag, and if it is a white chip, then the experiment ends there. The probability of taking out a white chip is 1/2.

For the second experiment, we will have always 2 white chips, and 3 red chips. So the probability of success is 2/5 = 0.4

For the third experiment, we will have always 1 white chip and 3 red chips, so the probability of success if 1/4 = 0.25.

We want to know how many extractions we need for each experiment until we pick a white chip. Note that each experiment is independent of each other, and each one has geometric distribution, the first one with probability of success 0.5, the second one with probability of success 0.4, and the third one with p = 0.25.

The total experiment, X, is the sum of this random variables, so the expected value of the total experimet is the sum of the expected value from each of its parts, lets call them, X₁, X₂ and X₃. Thus,

E(X) = E(X_1) + E(X_2) + E(X_3) = \frac{1}{0.5}+\frac{1}{0.4} +\frac{1}{0.25} = 2 + 2.5 + 4 = 8.5

The expected number of draws is 8.5.

I hope i could help you!  

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Step-by-step explanation:

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Answer:

for year 1

common stock =  $1.75 per share

preferred stock  = Zero

for year 2

common stock =  $4.25 per share

preferred stock  = $0.3 per share

for year 3

common stock =   $3 per share

preferred stock  =  $2 per share

Step-by-step explanation:

step 1

preferred stock value =  (40000 shares * $150) = $6000000

common stock value  = (100000 shares * $5) = $500000

 step 2

For year 1:

Dividend on preferred stock;

\frac{6000000 * 2}{100} = $120000

But total dividend in the question was $70000 therefore total amount of  dividend on cumulative preferred stock is $70000.

hence, dividend per share

= \frac{70000}{40000 shares} = $1.75 per share

Dividend on common stock;

70,000 - 70,000 = Zero

as total dividend distributed in year 1 is insufficient for cumulative preferred stock therefore no dividend will be paid on common stock.

For year 2:

Dividend on cumulative preferred stock;

\frac{6000000 * 2}{100}= $120000

extra dividend of year 1 ($120000 - $70000) = $50000

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($200000 – $170000) = $30000

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\frac{30000}{100000\ shares} = $0.3 per share

For year 3:

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dividend per share

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No dividend was extra in the year 2 therefore only available dividend of this year will be paid.

Dividend on common stock;

($320000 – $120000) = $200000

dividend per share

\frac{200000}{100000\ shares}= $2 per share

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