<span>False it's Nuremberg, Germany. Not France</span>
Answer:
In a way, one could say he was justified.
Explanation:
After the attacked on pearl harbour by Japanese, created fear and outrage against the Japanese Americans, and it was a common belief that the Japanese Americans were spies and had helped them. President Roosevelt issued Executive order 9066 in 1942 to evacuate all persons who could be a threat to national security from the west coast. Japanese were sent to live in camps with barbed wires and were not allowed to go outside the premises. Most of these camps built in the areas where the Japanese were populated. It was justified because Roosevelt issued an order on the grounds of military necessity, and to reduce a threat to national security.
El nunca de negroninos migration.
Its is true Saddam Hussein relied on sharia laws in 2009,2012 and in 2017 when Barack Obama was not in office anymore
In feudal Europe there was an emperor or a king who had his nobles who ruled areas. The areas were given to them by the king to reign free and in return they swore to help the king in wars or similar things. These noble people were not necessarily warriors or great conquerors, just good diplomats. The land was owed by them and everythign that the people who lived on those lands made they had to give a percentage to the noble, who paid taxes to the king, or kept everything if they had struck a deal of that kind.
Feudal Japan was different because the people who ruled were not nobles but rather military and war generals who were called shoguns. The emperor himself was not an important figure and didn't decide much. The shoguns controlled everything and since there was a highly militaristic tradition developed merchants were not important and trading was heavily state regulated. Shoguns would even practice complete isolationist policies to prevent trading with foreigners. People had to pay taxes to them.
