Answer:
Interest expense and a gain.
Explanation:
US GAAP allows companies to report their financial assets or financial liabilities at their fair market value, this is called the fair value option.
If interest rates increase, and of course the coupon rate is fixed, then they value of bonds will decrease. The same logic applies to bonds sold at a discount.
In this case, the company must report an interest expense in the income statement regardless of what happens to the interest rate, since the company must pay the coupon rate.
Since the price of the bonds decreased, then the company's liabilities (bonds payable) decrease, so the company must report a gain = bond's previous value - bond's current value
Answer:
Using Total Cost Analysis, it will be more cost-effective to use;
b. Supplier B
Explanation:
Total cost of ownership (TCO) can be defined as the total cost of an asset including the purchase cost and cost of operation of the asset. Assessing the TCO takes a bigger picture analysis of the overall cost of an asset. Most people usually don't consider the operating costs of an asset. This can prove detrimental in the long run when one starts going through unaccounted operation expenses. Unforeseen expenditure can lead to poor credit scores since one did not prepare for them.
When buying an asset, it is imperative to consider the sort-term and long-term costs. The short-term costs are the immediate costs that are often clearly identified in the initial stages. The short-term costs are purchase and transportation costs. The long-term costs are costs that will be incurred with time, over the life of an asset. Examples of long-term costs are; depreciation costs and operations costs.
In our case above, the best option would be Supplier B since it's total cost of ownership is cheaper compared to Supplier A and Supplier C.
Answer:
2.20 times
Explanation:
The computation of the current ratio is shown below:
Current ratio = Total current assets ÷ Total current liabilities
where,
Total current assets = Cash + account receivable + inventory
= $5,000 + $125,000 + $200,000
= $330,000
And, the total current liabilities is
= Income tax payable + account payable
= $50,000 + $100,000
= $150,000
So, the current ratio is
= $330,000 ÷ $150,000
= 2.20 times
Answer:
Allocation rate Machining= $50 per machine hour
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Estimated Machining cost= $4,000,000
Estimated Number of machine hours= 80,000
<u>To calculate the allocation rate for the Machining department, we need to use the following formula:</u>
Allocation rate Machining= total estimated costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base
Allocation rate Machining= 4,000,000 / 80,000
Allocation rate Machining= $50 per machine hour
Answer:
b) Cash 1,060,000; Premium on Bonds Payable 60,000; Bonds Payable 1,000,000