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frez [133]
3 years ago
9

The potential benefits lost by taking a specific action when two or more alternative choices are available is known as a(n):____

____a. Alternative cost.b. Sunk cost.c. Out-of-pocket cost.d. Differential cost.e. Opportunity cost.
Business
2 answers:
Sedbober [7]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

The  potential benefits lost by taking a specific action when two or more alternative choices are available is known as opportunity cost.                                    

The correct answer is E                                      

Explanation:

Opportunity cost is the potential lost as a result of selecting an alternative                 where alternative courses of action are involved. It is a relevant cost for                      decision-making.        

BaLLatris [955]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

e.  Opportunity cost

Explanation:

This is the perfect definition of opportunity cost.

Businesses mostly find themselves stuck in choosing between two different alternatives, especially when each alternative has a cost consequence. For example, as an employee I am faced with two alternatives, first, I can go on a one week holiday with my friends and chill (which would cost me $1500) but if I do so I would be loosing $200 (as my salary) daily for one week, the total of which would be $1400. If I choose to go with my friends on the holiday anyhow, the total cost of my holiday would not just be $1500 but the opportunity cost of $1400 would also be a part of my holiday cost because it's relevant and is being influenced by my decision.

So I would basically be loosing the potential benefits (salary in this case) if I choose to go on the holiday with my friends.

Alternative cost is the cost comparison of two alternatives aimed at choosing the most economically feasible option.

Sunk cost is cost that is already incurred and/or is committed to be incurred at a later date which can't be influenced by our decision.

Differential cost is the difference between the cost of two options.

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Slack Inc. borrowed $400,000 on July 1, 2020. The note requires interest at 12% and principal to be paid in one year. Which acco
ale4655 [162]

Answer:

The account is debited on December 31, 2020: Interest expense by the  entry:

Debit Interest expense $24,000

Credit  Interest Payable $24,000

Explanation:

Slack Inc. borrowed $400,000 on July 1, 2020. The note requires interest at 12%.

The amount of interest Slack Inc. pays per year = $400,000 x 12% = $48,000

On December 31, 2020, the company has borrowed $400,000 for 6 months. Following the Accrual basis, Slack Inc. would report on December 31, 2020 the interest expense for 6 months:

$48,000/12 x 6 = $24,000

The adjustment entry:

Debit Interest expense $24,000

Credit  Interest Payable $24,000

7 0
3 years ago
Me and my friend started a babysitting business in June. and so far we only got one job. Are we doing anything wrong? do people
BartSMP [9]
Maybe they need to gain more trust
3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
You have $100,000 to invest in a portfolio containing Stock X and Stock Y. Your goal is to create a portfolio that has an expect
____ [38]

Answer:

a. Amount to invest in Y

The amount that will be invested in Stock Y should be such that the expected return of the portfolio would equal 12.1%.

This would be determined by the weights of the stock.

Assume the weight to be invested in X is x.

Portfolio return = (weight of X * Return of X) + (weight of Y * Return of Y)

12.1% = (x * 10.28%) + ( (1 - x) * 7.52%)

0.121 = 0.1028x + 0.0752 - 0.0752x

0.121 - 0.0752 = 0.1028x - 0.0752x

0.0458 = 0.0276x

x = 0.0458 / 0.0276

= 1.6594

Weight in stock Y:

= 1 - 1.6594

= -0.6594

Amount to invest in Y:

= -0.6594 * 100,000

= -$65,940

b. Portfolio beta

It will be a weighted average of the betas of the two stocks:

= (Weight of stock X * Stock X Beta) + ( Weight of stock Y * Stock Y beta)

= (1.6594 * 1.20) + (-0.6594 * 0.80)

= 1.46

5 0
3 years ago
Eclipse Solar Company operates two factories. The company applies factory overhead to jobs on the basis of machine hours in Fact
Varvara68 [4.7K]

Answer:

Eclipse Solar Company

a. Factory overhead rate for Factory 1 is $23.13

b. Factory overhead rate for Factory 2 is $35.20

c. Journal Entries:

August 31:

Debit Work in Process Factory 1 $1,491,885

Credit Factory Overhead $1,491,885

Debit Work in Process Factory 2 $3,696,000

Credit Factory Overhead $3,696,000

d. Balances of the factory overhead accounts:

Factory 1 $23,915 underapplied

Factory 2 $89,700 overapplied

Explanation:

a) Data and Calculations:

                                                 Factory 1           Factory 2

Overhead application basis  machine hrs  direct labor hrs

Estimated overhead costs      $18,500,000 $44,000,000

Direct labor hours                       800,000

Factory overhead rate               $23.125    

Machine hours                                                 1,250,000

Factory overhead rate                                        $35.20

August:

Actual overhead costs              $1,515,800    $3,606,300

Actual direct labor

 hours for August                         64,500

Actual machine hours for August                     105,000

Application of overhead to production for August:

Factory 1 = $1,491,885 (64,500 * $23.13)

Factory 2 $3,696,000 (105,000 * $35.20)

Factory overhead accounts:

                                           Factory 1           Factory 2

Actual overhead costs      $1,515,800        $3,606,300

Applied overhead costs    $1,491,885        $3,696,000

Under/(Over)-Applied            $23,915            $89,700 Overapplied

4 0
3 years ago
The IRR evaluation method assumes that cash flows from the project are reinvested at the same rate equal to the IRR. However, in
Hatshy [7]

Answer:

MIRR -16.50%

They should reject the project is it destroys capital it do not meet to pay up the cost of the investment.

A typical firm’s IRR will be greater than its MIR

If the project yields higher than the cost of capital the IRR will be higher than the MIRR as reinvest the cashflow at the project yield rather than copany's cost of capital, thus it overstate the return.

Explanation:

MIRR = \sqrt{\frac{FV \: inflow}{PV \: outflow}} -1

WACC (cost of capital, reinvestment and financiation rate) = 7%

<em>Cash inflow:</em>

Inflow \: (1+ r)^{time} = Amount

Year 1 275000    336,886.825

Year 3 450000     481500

Year 4 450000    450000

Total                        1,268,386.825

<em>Cash outflow:</em>

F=                           -2,500,000

Year 2 -125000 -    109, 179.841

\frac{125,000}{(1 + 0.07)^{2} } = PV  

Total                    2,609,179.841

Now we can solve for MIRR:

MIRR = \sqrt[n]{\frac{FV \: inflow}{PV \: outflow}} -1

MIRR = \sqrt[4]{\frac{1,268,386.82}{2,609,179.84}} -1

MIRR - 16.49991% = -16.50%

6 0
3 years ago
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