Answer:
e. $89,337.60
Explanation:
Given that
The cost of the asset = $108,000
And, the MACRS rate is .2, .32, .192, .1152, .1152, and .0576 for years 1 to 6
So the accumulated depreciation at the end of the year 4 is
= ($108,000) × (0.2 + 0.32 + 0.192 + 0.1152)
= $108,000 × 0.8272
= $89,337.60
By multiplying the cost of the asset with the MACRS rate upto fourth year we can get the accumulated depreciation
Answer:
1. $490,000
2. $481,000
Explanation:
1. The computation of the total amount which is included in the balance sheet is shown below:
= Accounts receivable + Accounts receivable, long term + Land + Patents
= $215,000 + $118,000 + $63,000 + $94,000
= $490,000
In this the land and patents are recorded in the historical rates
2. The computation of the total amount which is included in the balance sheet is shown below:
= Accounts receivable + Accounts receivable, long term + Land + Patents
= $215,000 + $118,000 + $59,000 + $89,000
= $481,000
In this all items are recorded in the current rates
Answer:
$3420057
Explanation:
the company uses cumulative voting, the board of directors are all elected at once. You will need 1/(N+ 1) percent of the stock (plus one share) to guarantee election, where N is the number of seats up for election. So, the percentage of the company’s stock you need will be:Percent of stock needed = 1 / (N+ 1)Percent of stock needed =
1 / (3 + 1)Percent of stock needed = .25 or 25%So, the number of shares you need to purchase is:Number of shares to purchase = (240,000 × .25) + 1Number of shares to purchase = 60,001 And the total cost to you will be the shares needed times the price per share, or: Total cost = 60,001 $57Total cost =$ 3420057
Answer:
b. 0.67
Explanation:
UCL = 1 + 0.10
= 1.10 inch
LCL = 1 - 0.10
= 0.9 inch
standard deviation = 0.005 inch
mean = 1 inch
Cpk
= min[(UCL - mean)/(3*standard deviation) , (mean - LCL)/(3*standard deviation))]
= min[(1.10 - 1)/(3*0.05) , (1 - 0.9)/(3*0.05))]
= min[0.67 , 0.67]
= 0.67
Therefore, Theprocess capability index (Cpk) if the long-run process mean is 1 inch is 0.67
Answer:
C
Explanation:
This balance sheet equation is incorrect, Assets minus Current liabilities = Longminusterm liabilities
