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ioda
3 years ago
10

[The following information applies to the questions displayed below.]

Business
1 answer:
Sunny_sXe [5.5K]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Since the requirements are missing, I believe that you need the adjusting entries:

1. Depreciation on the equipment for the month of January is calculated using the straight-line method.

Dr Depreciation expense 375 ($18,000/4 x 1/12)

    Cr Accumulated depreciation, equipment 375

2. At the end of January, $3,500 of accounts receivable are past due, and the company estimates that 50% of these accounts will not be collected. Of the remaining accounts receivable, the company estimates that 2% will not be collected. The note receivable of $18,000 is considered fully collectible and therefore is not included in the estimate of uncollectible accounts.

Dr Bad debt expense 6,250

    Cr Allowance for doubtful accounts 6,250

3. Accrued interest revenue on notes receivable for January.

Dr Interest receivable 75 ($18,000 x 5% x 1/12)

    Cr Interest revenue 75

4. Unpaid salaries at the end of January are $33,100.

Dr Salaries expense 33,100

    Cr Salaries payable 33,100

5. Accrued income taxes at the end of January are $9,500

Dr Income tax expense 9,500

    Cr Income tax payable 9,500

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uppose McKnight ​Corp.'s breakeven point is revenues of $ 1 comma 100 comma 000. Fixed costs are $ 660 comma 000. Requirements 1
ioda

Answer:

1. Compute the contribution margin percentage.

  • 40%

2. Compute the selling price if variable costs are ​$16 per unit.

  • $26.67

3. Suppose 65 comma 000 units are sold. Compute the margin of safety in units and dollars.

  • margin of safety in $ = $633,550
  • margin of safety in % = 36.55%

4. What does this tell you about the risk of McKnight making a​ loss? What are the most likely reasons for this risk to​ increase?

  • Since the contribution margin is relatively high, this means that the production costs are relatively low (compared to selling price). The associated risks may come from high leverage, e.g. machinery purchased on credit that results in high interest expense. For the most part, having a high contribution margin is generally very good, just ask Apple.

Explanation:

break even point is $ = $1,100,000 (= break even point units x selling price)

fixed costs = $660,000

contribution margin % = (total sales - total variable costs) / total sales

total variable costs = $1,100,000 - $660,000 = $440,000

contribution margin % =  ($1,100,000 - $660,000) / $1,100,000 = 40%

variable costs = $16 per unit

0.4 = (x - $16) / x

0.4x = x - $16

$16 = 0.6x

x = $26.67

65,000 x $26.67 = $1,733,550

margin of safety in $ = $1,733,550 - $1,100,000 = $633,550

margin of safety in % = $633,550 / $1,733,550 = 36.55%

4 0
3 years ago
Karl Harris, a marketing critic, is concerned about the pervasiveness of marketing. He points out that advertising messages are
vekshin1

Answer: te correct answer is B) Cultural pollution

Explanation:

Cultural pollution is a defilement of culture and it is when too much mass of art, language, clothing, media and products whose existence is really meaningless is represented in society. Cultural pollution can be enjoyed in earnest by uncritical people, and ironically by the jaded and educated.

6 0
2 years ago
You are out to eat with your friends.
kompoz [17]

Answer:

The top would be $15.72

Explanation:

$78.56 x .2 = 15.712

3 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Cookies by casey has sales of $487,000 with costs of $263,000. interest expense is $26,000 and depreciation is $42,000. the tax
Ber [7]

The net income of Cookies by casey is $123,240

What is net income?

The net income of the company is the excess of its sales revenue over all costs of the running the business, which includes, the costs of sale, interest expense, depreciation as well as the taxes payable to the government authority which is 21% of profits before tax in this case.

Profit before tax=sales-costs of sale-depreciation-interest expense

sales=$487,000

costs of sale=$263,000

depreciation=$42,000

interest expense=$26,000

profit before tax=$487,000-$263,000-$42,000-$26,000

profit before tax=$156,000

tax rate=21%

net income=profit before tax*(1-tax rate)

net income=$156,000*(1-21%)

net income=$123,240

Find out more about net income on:https://brainly.ph/question/2444259

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8 0
1 year ago
Amanda Jones is a tax practitioner who is representing Sean and Diane Smith before the Wage and Investment Division of the Inter
algol13

Answer:B. Amanda must advise Sean and Dianne promptly of the inaccuracy and the consequences provided by Internal Revenue Code and Regulations.

Explanation:

Sean and Dianne have probably engaged Amanda at the end of the tax year and they are to face implications of the transactions as it relates to tax matters, Amanda is to provide them with legislation in relation to the matter to educate them in future tax transactions.

8 0
3 years ago
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