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Oksanka [162]
3 years ago
14

Do you think it makes sense for a transnational organization to have more than one headquarters? What might be some advantages a

ssociated with two headquarters, each responsible for different things? Can you think of any drawbacks?
Business
1 answer:
erica [24]3 years ago
5 0

Answer: A transnational organization is an organization that operate in more than one country. It is very important for such organization to have headquarters in each country their operate, because each country their operate will demand that the company should be registered as an organization, according to the countries terms and condition.

When a transnational company has at least one headquarters in the country their operate, it will help the operations of it's business in that country, It will help the organization in fast decision making, it will help the organization to run it's business in different ethics in accordance with the country it operates, it will help the organization in it's mode of employment. The organization can have a corporate headquarters in the country of it's origin, where the Managing directors of each headquarters come to discuss the business of the company.

One example of a transnational organization which has more that one headquarters is ExxonMobil. This company has more than 10 headquarters in different countries. And it's corporate headquarters is in Texas.

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3 years ago
Wilma’s Vegetable Market had the following transactions during 2017:
babymother [125]

Answer:

Journal Entries are as follows.

Explanation:

1.   Cash               $25,000 (Debit)

          Common Stock                              $ 25,000 (credit)

2.   Wages             $10,000  (debit)

               Cash                             $10,000 (credit)

3.  Land                         $ 50,000 (debit)

           Common Stock                        $50,000  (credit)

4.    Dividend Declared    $ 1000  (debit)

                    Dividend Payable            $ 1000 ( credit)

And

   Dividend Payable            $ 1000 ( debit)

                 Cash                           $ 1000 (credit)

5.        Cash               $ 3000  (debit)

              Long Term  Investment            $ 3000 (credit)

6.     Cash                    $ 20,000  (debit)

                Sales                        $ 20,000        ( credit)

7.       Inventory           $2000 (debit)

            Cash                      $ 2000  (credit)

8.      Investment                 $ 6000 ( debit)

               Cash                                             $ 6000 (credit)

9.  Bonds Payable                   $ 10,000  (debit)

                 Discount                             $ 1000 (credit) ( if there's any)

                  Common Stock               $ 9,000 ( credit ) ( in case of discount)

10.    Notes Payable                             $ 10,000  (debit)

Interest on Notes Payable                    $ 1,000 (debit) ( suppose there's interest of $ 1000 on $ 10,000 Notes Payable)

                         Cash                                                    $ 11,000 (credit)

4 0
3 years ago
Protecting intellectual property rights can result in new inventions that help the economy to grow. True False
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True hope this answers this question
7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
What happens when the federal reserve decreases the money supply?
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The currency would deflate, though this never happens
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3 years ago
If your risk-aversion coefficient is A = 4.4 and you believe that the entire 1926–2015 period is representative of future expect
tamaranim1 [39]

Answer:

=> fraction of the portfolio that should be allocated to T-bills = 0.4482 = 44.82%.

=> fraction to equity = 0.5518 = 55.18%.

Explanation:

So, in this question or problem we are given the following parameters or data or information which are; that the utility function is U = E(r) – 0.5 × Aσ2 and the risk-aversion coefficient is A = 4.4.

The fraction of the portfolio that should be allocated to T-bills and its equivalent fraction to equity can be calculated by using the formula below;

The first step is to determine or Calculate the value of fraction to equity.

Hence, the fraction to equity = risk premium/(market standard deviation)^2 - risk aversion.

= 8.10% ÷ [(20.48%)^2 × 3.5 = 0.5518.

Therefore, the value for fraction of the portfolio that should be allocated to T-bills = 1 - fraction to equity = 1 - 0.5518 =0.4482 .

8 0
3 years ago
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