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Norma-Jean [14]
2 years ago
6

If your risk-aversion coefficient is A = 4.4 and you believe that the entire 1926–2015 period is representative of future expect

ed performance, what fraction of your portfolio should be allocated to T-bills and what fraction to equity? Assume your utility function is U = E(r) – 0.5 × Aσ2
Business
1 answer:
tamaranim1 [39]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

=> fraction of the portfolio that should be allocated to T-bills = 0.4482 = 44.82%.

=> fraction to equity = 0.5518 = 55.18%.

Explanation:

So, in this question or problem we are given the following parameters or data or information which are; that the utility function is U = E(r) – 0.5 × Aσ2 and the risk-aversion coefficient is A = 4.4.

The fraction of the portfolio that should be allocated to T-bills and its equivalent fraction to equity can be calculated by using the formula below;

The first step is to determine or Calculate the value of fraction to equity.

Hence, the fraction to equity = risk premium/(market standard deviation)^2 - risk aversion.

= 8.10% ÷ [(20.48%)^2 × 3.5 = 0.5518.

Therefore, the value for fraction of the portfolio that should be allocated to T-bills = 1 - fraction to equity = 1 - 0.5518 =0.4482 .

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<em>Andrew Industries is contemplating issuing a 30​-year bond with a coupon rate of 7.13% ​(annual coupon​ payments) and a face value of $1,000. Andrew believes it can get a rating of A from Standard​& Poor's.​ However, due to recent financial difficulties at the​ company, Standard​ & Poor's is warning that it may downgrade Andrew​ Industries' bonds to BBB. Yields on​ A-rated, long-term bonds are currently 6.43%​, and yields on​ BBB-rated bonds are 6.84%. </em>

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