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Norma-Jean [14]
3 years ago
6

If your risk-aversion coefficient is A = 4.4 and you believe that the entire 1926–2015 period is representative of future expect

ed performance, what fraction of your portfolio should be allocated to T-bills and what fraction to equity? Assume your utility function is U = E(r) – 0.5 × Aσ2
Business
1 answer:
tamaranim1 [39]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

=> fraction of the portfolio that should be allocated to T-bills = 0.4482 = 44.82%.

=> fraction to equity = 0.5518 = 55.18%.

Explanation:

So, in this question or problem we are given the following parameters or data or information which are; that the utility function is U = E(r) – 0.5 × Aσ2 and the risk-aversion coefficient is A = 4.4.

The fraction of the portfolio that should be allocated to T-bills and its equivalent fraction to equity can be calculated by using the formula below;

The first step is to determine or Calculate the value of fraction to equity.

Hence, the fraction to equity = risk premium/(market standard deviation)^2 - risk aversion.

= 8.10% ÷ [(20.48%)^2 × 3.5 = 0.5518.

Therefore, the value for fraction of the portfolio that should be allocated to T-bills = 1 - fraction to equity = 1 - 0.5518 =0.4482 .

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Hi!

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7.5 x 8 = 60

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Which one of the following is not one of the four most common ways people can save money in banks?
marysya [2.9K]

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Fractional Reserves

Explanation:

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3 years ago
A Liquidation of a partnership LO P5 Kendra, Cogley, and Mei share income and loss in a 3:2:1 ratio (in ratio form: Kendra, 3/6;
morpeh [17]

Answer:

a. Inventory is sold for $608,400.

gain on sale of inventory = $608,400 - $537,600 = $70,800

allocation of gain:

Kendra 1/2 x $70,800 = $35,400

Cogley 1/3 x $70,800 = $23,600

Mei 1/6 x $70,800 = $11,800

Dr Cash 608,400

    Cr Inventory 537,600

    Cr Gain on sale of inventory 70,800

Dr Gain on sale of inventory 70,800

    Cr Kendra, capital 35,400

    Cr Cogley, capital 23,600

    Cr Mei, capital 11,800

Dr Accounts payable 258,000

    Cr Cash 258,000

Dr Kendra, capital 112,100

Dr Cogley, capital 196,175

Dr Mei, capital 146,025

    Cr Cash 454,300

b. Inventory is sold for $469,200.

loss on sale of inventory = $469,200 - $537,600 = -$69,400

allocation of loss:

Kendra 1/2 x $68,400 = $34,200

Cogley 1/3 x $68,400 = $22,800

Mei 1/6 x $68,400 = $11,400

Dr Cash 469,200

Dr Loss on sale of inventory 68,400

    Cr Inventory 537,600

 

Dr Kendra, capital 34,300

Dr Cogley, capital 22,800

Dr Mei, capital 11,400

    Dr Loss on sale of inventory 68,400

Dr Accounts payable 258,000

    Cr Cash 258,000

Dr Kendra, capital 42,400

Dr Cogley, capital 149,775

Dr Mei, capital 122,825

    Dr Cash 315,100

c) c. Inventory is sold for $358,800 and any partners with capital deficits pay in the amount of their deficits.

loss on sale of inventory = $358,800 - $537,600 = -$178,800

allocation of loss:

Kendra 1/2 x $178,800 = $89,400

Cogley 1/3 x $178,800 = $59,600

Mei 1/6 x $178,800 = $29,800

Dr Cash 358,800

Dr Loss on sale of inventory 178,800

    Cr Inventory 537,600

 

Dr Kendra, capital 89,400

Dr Cogley, capital 59,600

Dr Mei, capital 29,800

    Dr Loss on sale of inventory 178,800

Dr Cash 12,700

    Cr Kendra, capital 12,700

Dr Accounts payable 258,000

    Cr Cash 258,000

Dr Cogley, capital 112,975

Dr Mei, capital 104,425

    Dr Cash 217,400

   

d. Inventory is sold for $298,800 and the partners have no assets other than those invested in the partnership.

loss on sale of inventory = $298,800 - $537,600 = -$238,800

allocation of loss:

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Cogley 1/3 x $238,800 = $79,600

Mei 1/6 x $238,800 = $39,800

Dr Cash 298,800

Dr Loss on sale of inventory 238,800

    Cr Inventory 537,600

 

Dr Kendra, capital 119,400

Dr Cogley, capital 79,600

Dr Mei, capital 39,800

    Dr Loss on sale of inventory 238,800

Dr Cogley, capital 28,467

Dr Mei, capital 14,233

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Dr Accounts payable 258,000

    Cr Cash 258,000

Dr Cogley, capital 64,508

Dr Mei, capital 80,192

    Dr Cash 144,700

6 0
3 years ago
The brenda one is the question thank youuu:)
Ivenika [448]

Answer:

C. y = 11000(1.086)^7

Explanation:

Given the following data;

Principal = $11,000

Interest rate = 8.6% = 8.6/100 = 0.086

Time = 7 years

To derive a mathematical expression, we would use the compound interest formula;

A = P(1 + \frac{r}{100})^{t}

Where;

A is the future value.

P is the principal or starting amount.

r is annual interest rate.

t is the number of years for the compound interest.

Substituting into the formula, we have;

A = 11000*(1 + \frac{8.6}{100})^{7

A = 11000*(1 + 0.086)^{7

A = 11000*(1.086)^{7

A = 11000*1.78

A = $19,580

7 0
3 years ago
Which of the following documents will a bank issue in order to secure a loan with your personal assets? A Guarantee and surety a
frozen [14]

A.

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5 0
3 years ago
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