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Norma-Jean [14]
3 years ago
6

If your risk-aversion coefficient is A = 4.4 and you believe that the entire 1926–2015 period is representative of future expect

ed performance, what fraction of your portfolio should be allocated to T-bills and what fraction to equity? Assume your utility function is U = E(r) – 0.5 × Aσ2
Business
1 answer:
tamaranim1 [39]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

=> fraction of the portfolio that should be allocated to T-bills = 0.4482 = 44.82%.

=> fraction to equity = 0.5518 = 55.18%.

Explanation:

So, in this question or problem we are given the following parameters or data or information which are; that the utility function is U = E(r) – 0.5 × Aσ2 and the risk-aversion coefficient is A = 4.4.

The fraction of the portfolio that should be allocated to T-bills and its equivalent fraction to equity can be calculated by using the formula below;

The first step is to determine or Calculate the value of fraction to equity.

Hence, the fraction to equity = risk premium/(market standard deviation)^2 - risk aversion.

= 8.10% ÷ [(20.48%)^2 × 3.5 = 0.5518.

Therefore, the value for fraction of the portfolio that should be allocated to T-bills = 1 - fraction to equity = 1 - 0.5518 =0.4482 .

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Answer:

d. employment and production would fall.

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Economic agents have expectations about the parameters of an economy, such as price, inflation, unemployment rate, etc. If the price falls while economic agents expect the opposite, in the short run production and employment tend to increase. This is because investment decisions had already been made. However, in the medium and long term, economic agents realize that price expectations have not been confirmed and market parameters adjust. Thus, in the face of falling prices, there will be less demand. With lower demand, there will be a decrease in production and thus the employment rate decreases.

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3 years ago
You are the manager of a firm that produces products X and Y at zero cost. You know that different types of consumers value your
arlik [135]

Answer and Explanation:

a)

If you charge $40 for X then everyone will buy as everyone is willing to pay atleast $40. this means all three groups buy that is 3*1000 buyers.So profit from X = 3000*40= $120,000

And since everyone is willing to willing to pay atleast $60 for Y again all three groups will buy so profit from Y =3000*60=$180,000

profits=$300,000

b)

If you charge $90 and $160 for X and Y respectively you will have only 1000 buyers for each product as others are unwilling to pay this much.

So profits = 1000*90 + 1000*160=$250,000

c)

for a bundle of X and Y buyers are willing to pay a total of $150, $210 and $200 across the three categories.

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d)

If you charge $210 only the second will buy as they are willing to pay that much so profits =1000*210=$210,000

Also by selling X at $90 group 1 will buy X; profits=1000*90=$90,000

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8 0
3 years ago
A corporation is authorized to sell 1,000,000 shares of common stock. Today there are 500,000 shares outstanding, and the board
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Answer:

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Dividends can be either distributed in cash or distributed as new stock. In this case the company decided to issue stock instead of cash payments. Since the company has 500,000 outstanding and the board declared a 7% dividend, then 35,000 stocks should be issued (= 500,000 x 7%).

Whether shareholders receive money or stocks, they still have to include the dividends as part of their gross income.

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3 years ago
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Answer:

$1,002,000

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5 0
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Answer:

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In marketing, efforts put into an advertisement can yield a greater result even after the lag period. This means that a product might need more than one advertisement and the combined effects of the advertisements will be seen overtime if not immediately.

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Cheers.

5 0
3 years ago
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