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SVEN [57.7K]
3 years ago
7

A company is planning to move to a larger office and is trying to decide if the new office should be owned or leased. Cash flows

for owning versus leasing are estimated as follows. Assume that the cash flows from operations will remain level over a 10 year holding period. If purchased, the company will invest $385,000 in equity and finance the remainder with an interest-only loan that has a balloon payment due in year 10. The after-tax cash flow from sale of the property at the end of year 10 is expected to be $750,000. What is the incremental rate of return on equity to the company, if the property is owned instead of leased

Business
1 answer:
skad [1K]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:  13.26%

Explanation:

Year 0 Investment = $385,000

Incremental Cash flow every year = Cashflow if owned - Cashflow if leased

= 164,000 - 133,000

= $31,500

Incremental cashflow in Year 10 = Incremental Cashflow + Cashflow from sale of property

= 31,500 + 750,000

= $781,500

Using Excel and the IRR function, the rate is = 13.26%

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Suppose 2 athletes sign 10-year contracts for $80 million. In one case, we're told that the $80 million will be paid in 10 equal
maxonik [38]

Answer:

player 2 is signing a better contract

Explanation:

the present value of an annuity (player 1) = annual payment x annuity factor

assuming that the interest rate is 10%

present value = $10 million x 6.1446 (PV annuity factor, 10%, 10 periods) = $61.446 million

player 2's contract

the present value of a growing annuity = [payment / (i - g)] x {1 - [(1 + g) / (1 + i)]ⁿ} = [$10 / (10% - 5%)] x {1 - [(1 + 5%) / (1 + 10%)]¹⁰} = $200 x 0.372 = $74.398 million

4 0
3 years ago
You own a portfolio that has a total value of $130,000 and a beta of 1.28. You have another $49,000 to invest and you would like
fredd [130]

Answer:βB =0.9147=beta of new investment

Explanation:

Total investment= $130,000 + $49,000=  $179,000

Using

Portfolio beta(βp) = wA × βA + wB × βB

Where βp is the portfolio beta coefficient,

wA is the weight of the first investment,

βA is the beta coefficient of first investment;

wB is the weight of the second investment,

βB is the beta coefficient of second investment

but weight of investment is  stock value/ total investment x 100

wA= 130,000/ 179,000X 100=72.63%

WB= 49,000/179,000 X100=27.374%

Portfolio beta(βp) = wA × βA + wB × βB

1.18=(72.63%*1.28)+(27.374% XβB  )  

1.18=0.9296+0.27374βB  

βB i=(1.18-0.9298)/0.27374

βB =0.9147=beta of new investment

6 0
3 years ago
In its first month of operation, Tamarisk, Inc. purchased 230 units of inventory for $8, then 330 units for $9, and finally 270
aivan3 [116]

Answer:

Phantom profit= $500

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Purchased: 230 units for $8

Purchased: 330 units for $9

Purchased: 270 units for $10.

At the end of the month, 310 units remained.

The method with the highest ending inventory will result in the lowest cost of goods sold.

First, we need to calculate the ending inventory under FIFO method.

FIFO (first-in, first-out):

Ending inventory= 270*10 + 40*9= $3,060

Now, we calculate the ending inventory under the LIFO method and compare it with FIFO.

LIFO (last-in, first-out)

Ending inventory= 230*8  + 80*9= $2,560

Phantom profit= 3,060 - 2,560= $500

8 0
3 years ago
What u Snap so I can go add you and be friends
Sphinxa [80]

Answer:

What do you mean what yousnap

Explanation:

5 0
3 years ago
Target profit is $100,000; fixed overhead costs are $120,000 and fixed selling and administrative costs are $50,000. If total va
vlada-n [284]

Answer:

40%

Explanation:

The markup percentage to the variable cost using the variable cost method can be obtained by dividing the addition of the target profit and total fixed cost by the total variable cost as follows:

Total fixed cost = Fixed overhead costs + Fixed selling and administrative costs = $120,000 + $50,00 = $170,000

The markup percentage to the variable cost = (Target profit + Total fixed cost) / Total variable cost = ($100,000 + $170,000) / $675,000 = $270,000 / $675,000 = 0.40, or 40%.

Therefore, the markup percentage to the variable cost using the variable cost method is 40%.

3 0
3 years ago
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