Answer:
$72693.9
Step-by-step explanation:
To get this answer you need to use the compound interest formula, which will be A=P(1+r/n)^n(t). P=59,000 r=11%=0.11 n=1 (annually) t=2 years. From there you should be able to figure the rest out and get the answer. Hope this helps!
Answer:
$4720
Step-by-step explanation:
Simple Interest
A=P(1+in)
A- Accumulated Amount
P- Principal Amount
i- Interest (÷100)
n- Number Of Years
A=P(1+in)
A=4000(1+0.06×3)
A=4000(1.18)
.°.A=$4720
<h3>
Answer: Choice C) (x-4, y)</h3>
Explanation:
We have x = 5 turn into x = 1. We need to subtract 4 from the x coordinate to get this. Therefore x turns into x-4.
The y coordinate stays at y = 2 the entire time, so y isn't altered. We have y map to y.
Overall, the rule is 
which translates the point 4 units to the left.
<span>Given
situation : 2 improper fraction is multiplied. Now is the product always more
than than 1?
Yes, the product is always more than 1. Because take note that in improper
fraction, the numerator is always higher compare to the denominator of the
given fraction. That means when you divide the numerator from the denominator,
the answer would always be more than 1.
Example:
=> 5 / 4 x 4 / 2
=> 20 / 8 or equals to 5/2
now divide
=> 5 / 2
=> 2 1/2
</span>
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
In this case we know the composition of f and g is
Thus if we change x by 3 we get
