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Virty [35]
3 years ago
7

Dennis used 3/8 of a bucket of paint,and Jackson used 5/8 of an identical bucket. Who used more paint?

Mathematics
2 answers:
Ber [7]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:5/8

Step-by-step explanation:

its more then 3/8

valkas [14]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Jackson

Step-by-step explanation:

he used 50 percent

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What adds to 60 and multiples to 900
notsponge [240]

Answer:

30

Step-by-step explanation:

30 + 30 = 60

3* 3 = 9

Add the 0s

30 * 30 = 900

I hope I helped!

Let me know if you need anything else!

~ Zoe

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Which statement best describes the effect of the confounding variable?
DiKsa [7]

Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago
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What is the area of the shaded portion of the circle?
SOVA2 [1]

Answer:

The first option is the correct one, the area of the shaded portion of the circle is

[/tex](5 \pi -11.6)ft^2[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Let us first consider the triangle + the shadow.

The full area of the circle is the radius squared times pi, so

A=(5 ft)^2 \cdot \pi \\25 ft^2 \cdot \pi

Since \frac{72^{\circ}}{360^{\circ}}=\frac{1}{5}, the area of the triangle + the shaded area is one fifth of the area of the whole circle, thus

A_1=\frac{1}{5}25 ft^2 \cdot \pi\\ =5 ft^2 \cdot \pi

If we want to know the area of the shaded part of the circle, we must subtract the area of the triangle from A_1.

The area of the triangle is given by

A_{triangle}=\frac{1}{2}\cdot (2.9+2.9)ft \cdot 4 ft\\= 11.6 ft^2

Thus the area of the shaded portion of the circle is

A_1-A_{triangle}=5 \pi ft^2-11.6ft^2\\= (5 \pi -11.6)ft^2

3 0
3 years ago
One concern of a gambler is that she will go broke before achieving her first win. Suppose that she plays a game in which the pr
Ray Of Light [21]

Answer:

The probability that she wins exactly once before she loses her initial capital is 0.243.

Step-by-step explanation:

The gambler commences with $30, i.e. she played 3 games.

Let <em>X</em> = number of games won by the gambler.

The probability of winning a game is, <em>p</em> = 0.10.

The random variable <em>X</em> follows a Binomial distribution, with probability mass function:

P(X=x)={n\choose x}p^{x}(1-p)^{n-x};\ x=0, 1, 2,...

Compute the probability of exactly one winning as follows:

P(X=1)={3\choose 1}(0.10)^{1}(1-0.10)^{3-1}\\=3\times0.10\times0.81\\=0.243

Thus, the probability that she wins exactly once before she loses her initial capital is 0.243.

4 0
3 years ago
Please answer &gt;.&lt;
gladu [14]
Answer: the total amount of money that the investor would have after 6 years will be $ 536.04 :)
5 0
3 years ago
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