Answer:
30
Step-by-step explanation:
30 + 30 = 60
3* 3 = 9
Add the 0s
30 * 30 = 900
I hope I helped!
Let me know if you need anything else!
~ Zoe
Answer:
D
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
The first option is the correct one, the area of the shaded portion of the circle is
[/tex](5 \pi -11.6)ft^2[/tex]
Step-by-step explanation:
Let us first consider the triangle + the shadow.
The full area of the circle is the radius squared times pi, so
A=
Since
, the area of the triangle + the shaded area is one fifth of the area of the whole circle, thus

If we want to know the area of the shaded part of the circle, we must subtract the area of the triangle from
.
The area of the triangle is given by

Thus the area of the shaded portion of the circle is

Answer:
The probability that she wins exactly once before she loses her initial capital is 0.243.
Step-by-step explanation:
The gambler commences with $30, i.e. she played 3 games.
Let <em>X</em> = number of games won by the gambler.
The probability of winning a game is, <em>p</em> = 0.10.
The random variable <em>X</em> follows a Binomial distribution, with probability mass function:

Compute the probability of exactly one winning as follows:

Thus, the probability that she wins exactly once before she loses her initial capital is 0.243.
Answer: the total amount of money that the investor would have after 6 years will be $ 536.04 :)