2 years ago

Why is 1/2 of 2 equals one whole

2 answers:

8 0

Hey There :)

This is because one is half of two. You could also multiply 2 * 0.5= 1, 0.5 represents $\frac{1}{2}$ and two is the whole number. This is how $\frac{1}{2}$ of two equals one.

Have A Brainly Day :)

natta225 [31]2 years ago

5 0

1/2 of 2 is 1 whole because 1 is half of 2 1+1=2

You might be interested in

Given that

NeX [460]

Answer:

R = 4x + 8y

-8y = 4x - R

-8y = 4(4) - 32

-8y = 16 - 32

-8y = -16

we divide through by -8

so now

y = 2

Hope this will help

6 0

2 years ago

Give a real world example of a rate for a unit rate of 40 miles per hour

Zina [86]

A person drives 500 miles in 5 hours.

8 0

3 years ago

If a = b + 2, then (b - a)⁴ = ?

Hatshy [7]

Use substitution.

anywhere you see "a" , than you would plug in b + 2 in for it so....

(b - (b + 2)^4

now take the negative sign and distribute it "+"

so b - b is 0, than 0 - (-2) is -2.

so what is (-2)^4 ????? it would become positive 16

8 0

2 years ago

Answer this quick please

Ghella [55]

Answer:

$84s^{2} t\sqrt{35st}$