Hello from MrBillDoesMath!
Answer:
See discussion below
Discussion:
sec(@) = 1/cos(@)
and
tan(@) = sin(@)/ cos(@)
so the equation in the Question is equivalent to
( 1/ (cos^2(@) ) - ( sin^2(@) / cos^2(@) )
Combine the two terms over the like denominator cos^2(@):
( 1 - sin^2(@) ) / (cos^2(@) )
But as sin^2(@) + cos^2(@) = 1, 1 - sin^2(@) = cos^2(@). Using this the above equation becomes o
(cos^2(@)) / ((cos^2(@)) = 1
This proves the result.
Thank you,
MrB
