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krek1111 [17]
3 years ago
7

Explain how a testcross can provide evidence for or against linkage.

Biology
1 answer:
MrRa [10]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Testcrosses clarify linkage because each phenotypic class of progeny corresponds to each gamete type produced by the dihybrid parent.

Explanation:

  • A test cross involves the crossing of an individual with another phenotypically recessive individual so as to determine the zygosity of the former by analyses of the proportions of offspring phenotypes.
  • In order to determine linkage, the test cross shows that if the parentals are more than the recombinants, we can say that the two genes such as b and c  are genetically linked and therefore, they must be on the same chromosome.
  • Also, the test-crosses help to find out which alleles came from which parent.
  • By setting up testcrosses in which one parent is homozygous for the recessive alleles of both genes,we can analyze the gene combinations received in the gametes from the other, doubly heterozygous parent.
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What is the function of the following in our body?:<br> Kidney<br> Bladder<br> Ureters<br> Urethra
iogann1982 [59]
Kidney. - Filters our blood.

Bladder. - Stores urine until urination

Ureters - Connects Kidney to the Bladder

Urethra. - Carries Urine from the Bladder to outside of the body

Hope this helps!
4 0
3 years ago
A carrier mother (XHXh) of hemophilia marries a normal father(XHY). *Use allele letter H What are the mothers and fathers genoty
ZanzabumX [31]

Answer: The mother of the man can be either XHXH or XHXh and pass her normal allele to the son and his father can be either XHY or XhY, he only passes his Y chromosome. The mother of the woman can be XHXH or XHXh and the father could be XhY, then she could have inherited the normal allele from the mother and the affected allele from the father. But also, the mother of the woman could be XHXh or XhXh and the father could be XHY, so in this case she could have inherited the normal alele from the father and the affected allele from the mother.

Explanation:

Hemophilia is an inherited bleeding disorder in which the blood does not clot properly. This can cause bleeding either spontaneously or after an injury.

<u>It is related to the X chromosome and it is recessive for females</u>, this mean they need both affected alleles to develop the trait. <u>Males only need one recessive allele because they only have one X chromosome</u>. This means that females need both parents to be at least carriers (although one or both can also have the disease or both recessive alleles). While males inherit it only from the mother, either she is a carrier (one recessive allele) or she has the disease (both recessive alleles). Then the mother passes the X chromosome with the affected allele to the son, and that son only receives the Y chromosome from the father, which does not have the gene that determines this disease.

If the mother is a carrier, her genotype is XHXh, being XH the normal allele and Xh the affected allele. She does not have hemophilia because she has a dominant allele. The father is XHY, so he does not have the disease because his only allele is normal (dominant)

The mother of the man can be either XHXH (she can only pass a normal allele) or XHXh and pass her normal allele to the son (in this case, the recessive allele is not inherited by chance.) His father can be either XHY or XhY, he only passes his Y chromosome which is not related to the disease. The mother of the woman can be XHXH or XHXh and the father could be XhY, then she could have inherited the normal allele from the mother and the affected allele from the father. But also, the mother of the woman could be XHXh or XhXh and the father could be XHY, so in this case she could have inherited the normal alele from the father and the affected allele from the mother.

4 0
3 years ago
Question 1
weqwewe [10]

The correct statement is D. The mental region is superior to the nasal region.

The different terms in the statements are anatomical terms. We use them to describe the regions and locations of organs.

<h3>Why are the other statements incorrect</h3>
  • The pubic region is inferior to the pelvic region: inferior means is lower. However, the pubic region is higher than the pelvic region.
  • The olecranon region is distal to the carpal region: we describe organs and bones in relation to the nearest parts to the axis of the body. In other words, we describe things from proximal (to the column and head) to distal. So, the carpal is distal to the olecranon.
  • The heart lies dorsal to the vertebral column: dorsal means behind. The heart lies ventral to the column. In other words, towards the front of it.
  • The sternal region is lateral to the axillary region: we describe locations from proximal to distal, so the axillary region is lateral to the sternal region.

In conclusion, the correct option is: The mental region is superior to the nasal region because the mental region is the one that is above the nasal one in the skull.

Learn more about anatomic terminology at:

brainly.com/question/10384727

4 0
2 years ago
Are all studies equally immune to bias?
viva [34]

Answer:

NO

Explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
What two things can make a molecule polar?
Dafna11 [192]

Answer:

Polar molecules must contain polar bonds due to a difference in electronegativity between the bonded atoms.

Explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
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