Answer:
Profit $3,567
I would exercise my option by buying the shares before the expiration .
Explanation:
Calculation of how much profit would you make trading $1,000,000
First step is to multiply the spot rate on the final day by the trading amount
3.4329s*$1,000,000
=$3,432,900
Second step is to divide the spot rate option by the strike price
3,432,900/3.4207
=$1,003,567
Last Step is to find the profit
Profit =$1,003,567-$1,000,000
Profit=$3,567
Therefore the amount of PROFIT you would make trading $1,000,000 will be $3,567
Based on the above calculation I would exercise my option by buying the shares before the expiration .
One of the reasons why the Apple II computer was popular and known to the people was that the "operating system of this computer was stored in the ROM or Read-Only Memory". It is developed with advanced utilities and also the first multi-touch wireless mouse was also being developed by Apple company. Other reasons, why people choose Apple II computer over the other brand was that its durability and uniqueness. But this computer is much expensive compared to other known brands but still, people keep patronizing the apple II computer product.
Answer: The correct answer is "A. Question marks".
Explanation: This firm would be placed in the "Question marks" category of bussiness in the BCG matrix.
The questions are those that still do not know what their evolution will be (usually those that are in the development or launch phase), but which can become star products.
Moral Hazard occurs when a person increases its exposure to risk because someone else bears the the cost of those risk(Insurance companies)
Explanation:
Moral Hazard usually occurs when their is information asymmetry,the risk taking party has more information than the risk incurring party.
The financial crisis of 2008 is the best example of the Moral Hazard Problem.
The Moral Hazard Problem arises because the managers of the financial firm took over riskier investments because they believed that the federal government will save them from the bankruptcy.
Answer:
A. IFRS, tangible assets are tested only when factors suggest impairment.
Explanation:
The tested of the tangible assets would be based on some kind of changes that are change in the market value, chnage in the technology, rise or reduction in the rate of interest in the market etc
In addition to this, the intangible assets such as goodwill would be testes on annually basis
Therefore the first option is correct
