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timurjin [86]
3 years ago
14

A wise man once said, "400 reduced by 3 times my age is 208" What is the mans age

Mathematics
2 answers:
yanalaym [24]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

96

Step-by-step

explanation:

400−2x=208. 400−208=2x. 192=2x. x=96

never [62]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

The wise man is 64 years old

Step-by-step explanation:

"400 reduced by 3 times my age is 208"

we don't know the man's age, so we can substitute it for x. This means 400-3x=208. Using this equation, we can now solve for x to find the man's age.

400-3x=208

400-208=3x

192=3x

64=x

Checking answer:

400-3•64=

400-192=208

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sineoko [7]
Simple 200 is the answer
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Lilit [14]

Take the Laplace transform of both sides:

L[y'' - 4y' + 8y] = L[δ(t - 1)]

I'll denote the Laplace transform of y = y(t) by Y = Y(s). Solve for Y :

(s²Y - s y(0) - y'(0)) - 4 (sY - y(0)) + 8Y = exp(-s) L[δ(t)]

s²Y - 4sY + 8Y = exp(-s)

(s² - 4s + 8) Y = exp(-s)

Y = exp(-s) / (s² - 4s + 8)

and complete the square in the denominator,

Y = exp(-s) / ((s - 2)^2 + 4)

Recall that

L⁻¹[F(s - c)] = exp(ct) f(t)

In order to apply this property, we multiply Y by exp(2)/exp(2), so that

Y = exp(-2) • exp(-s) exp(2) / ((s - 2)² + 4)

Y = exp(-2) • exp(-s + 2) / ((s - 2)² + 4)

Y = exp(-2) • exp(-(s - 2)) / ((s - 2)² + 4)

Then taking the inverse transform, we have

L⁻¹[Y] = exp(-2) L⁻¹[exp(-(s - 2)) / ((s - 2)² + 4)]

L⁻¹[Y] = exp(-2) exp(2t) L⁻¹[exp(-s) / (s² + 4)]

L⁻¹[Y] = exp(2t - 2) L⁻¹[exp(-s) / (s² + 4)]

Next, we recall another property,

L⁻¹[exp(-cs) F(s)] = u(t - c) f(t - c)

where F is the Laplace transform of f, and u(t) is the unit step function

u(t) = \begin{cases}1 & \text{if }t \ge 0 \\ 0 & \text{if }t < 0\end{cases}

To apply this property, we first identify c = 1 and F(s) = 1/(s² + 4), whose inverse transform is

L⁻¹[F(s)] = 1/2 L⁻¹[2/(s² + 2²)] = 1/2 sin(2t)

Then we find

L⁻¹[Y] = exp(2t - 2) u(t - 1) • 1/2 sin(2 (t - 1))

and so we end up with

y = 1/2 exp(2t - 2) u(t - 1) sin(2t - 2)

7 0
2 years ago
This season, the probability that the Yankees will win a game is 0.49 and the probability that the Yankees will score 5 or more
yanalaym [24]

Answer:

0.226 = 22.6% probability that the Yankees will lose when they score 5 or more runs

Step-by-step explanation:

Conditional probability:

We use the conditional probability formula to solve this question. It is

In which

P(B|A) is the probability of event B happening, given that A happened.

is the probability of both A and B happening.

P(A) is the probability of A happening.

In this question:

If the Yankees score 5 or more runs, either they win, or they lose. The sum of these probabilities is 1.

Probability that the Yankees win:

Event A: Scoring 5 or more runs.

Event B: Winning

The probability that the Yankees will score 5 or more runs in a game is 0.53.

This means that

The probability that the Yankees win and score 5 or more runs is 0.41.

This means that

So

0.774 probability that the Yankees will win when they score 5 or more runs

What is the probability that the Yankees will lose when they score 5 or more runs?

p + 0.774 = 1

p = 1 - 0.774

p = 0.226

0.226 = 22.6% probability that the Yankees will lose when they score 5 or more runs

4 0
3 years ago
A plank is 6.7 feet long. Arachna wants to cut the plank into 0.8-foot pieces. how many 0.8-foot pieces can she get?
attashe74 [19]

Answer: 8

Step-by-step explanation:

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dlinn [17]
<span>Which of the following is 7.4 kilograms?
=> 740 000 mg
=> 740 g
=> 74 hg
=> 74 000 cg
Let’s base on the Unit of measurement or conversion.
=> 740 000 mg
In every 1 kilogram is equals to 1 000 000
=> 7.4 kg * 1 000 000 mg = 7 400 000 mg
It’s not the correct Answer
=> 740 g
In every 1 kg is equals to 1 000 grams
=> 7.4 * 1000 = 7 400 grams
Thus, it’s not the correct answer
=> 74 hg
In every 1kg is equals to 10 hectograms
=> 7.4 kg x 10 = 74hg
Thus, this is the correct answer
=> 74 000 cg
In every 1kg is equals to 100 000
=> 7.4 * 100 000 = 740 000
not the correct answer.

</span>



8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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