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vfiekz [6]
4 years ago
6

A card chosen at random from a deck of 52 cards. There are 4 queens and 4 kings in a deck of playing cards. What is the probabil

ity it is a queen or a king?
Mathematics
1 answer:
Romashka-Z-Leto [24]4 years ago
7 0
.15 or 15% you have (4/52)+(4/54) for queens and kings therefore that’s your probability
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Five cards are drawn from a standard 52-card playing deck. A gambler has been dealt five cards—two aces, one king, one 3, and on
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Answer:

The probability that he ends up with a full house is 0.0083.

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given that a gambler has been dealt five cards—two aces, one king, one 3, and one 6. He discards the 3 and the 6 and is dealt two more cards.

We have to find the probability that he ends up with a full house (3 cards of one kind, 2 cards of another kind).

We know that gambler will end up with a full house in two different ways (knowing that he has given two more cards);

  • If he is given with two kings.
  • If he is given one king and one ace.

Only in these two situations, he will end up with a full house.

Now, there are three kings and two aces left which means at the time of drawing cards from the deck, the available cards will be 47.

So, the ways in which we can draw two kings from available three kings is given by =  \frac{^{3}C_2 }{^{47}C_2}   {∵ one king is already there}

              =  \frac{3!}{2! \times 1!}\times \frac{2! \times 45!}{47!}           {∵ ^{n}C_r = \frac{n!}{r! \times (n-r)!} }

              =  \frac{3}{1081}  =  0.0028

Similarly, the ways in which one king and one ace can be drawn from available 3 kings and 2 aces is given by =  \frac{^{3}C_1 \times ^{2}C_1 }{^{47}C_2}

                                                                   =  \frac{3!}{1! \times 2!}\times \frac{2!}{1! \times 1!} \times \frac{2! \times 45!}{47!}

                                                                   =  \frac{6}{1081}  =  0.0055

Now, probability that he ends up with a full house = \frac{3}{1081} + \frac{6}{1081}

                                                                                    =  \frac{9}{1081} = <u>0.0083</u>.

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Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

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In the adjoining figure, XY = XZ . YQ and ZP are the bisectors of <img src="https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20%5Cangle" id="TexFormula1
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Answer:

See Below.

Step-by-step explanation:

Statements:                                              Reasons:

1)\, XY=XZ                                              Given

2) \text{ $ m\angle Y= m\angle Z$}                                        Isosceles Triangle Theorem

\displaystyle 3) \text{ $m\angle Y=m\angle XYQ + \angle QYZ$}                  Angle Addition

\displaystyle 4)\text{ $YQ$ bisects $\angle XYZ$}                               Given

5) \text{ $m\angle XYQ=m\angle QYZ$}                           Definition of Bisector

\displaystyle 6)\text{ $m\angle Y=2m\angle QYZ$}                               Substitution

7)\text{ $m\angle Z=m\angle XZP+m\angle PZY$}              Angle Addition

8)\text{ $ZP$ bisects $\angle XZY$}                              Given

\displaystyle 9) \text{ $m\angle XZP=m\angle PZY$ }                          Definition of Bisector

\displaystyle 10) \text{ $ m\angle Z = 2m\angle PZY $}                            Substitution

11)\text{ } 2m\angle QYZ=2m\angle PZY                    Substitution

12)\text{ }m\angle QYZ=m\angle PZY                        Division Property of Equality

13)\text{ } YZ=YZ                                         Reflexive Property

14)\text{ } \Delta YZP\cong\Delta ZYQ                             Angle-Side-Angle Congruence*

15)\text{ } YQ=ZP                                         CPCTC

*For clarification:

∠Y = ∠Z

YZ = YZ (or ZY)

∠PZY = ∠QYZ

So, Angle-Side-Angle Congruence:

ΔYZP is congruent to ΔZYQ

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Step-by-step explanation:

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