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4 years ago

6

A card chosen at random from a deck of 52 cards. There are 4 queens and 4 kings in a deck of playing cards. What is the probabil

ity it is a queen or a king?

1 answer:

Romashka-Z-Leto [24]4 years ago

7 0

.15 or 15% you have (4/52)+(4/54) for queens and kings therefore that’s your probability

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Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago

What quantum numbers specify these subshells 5s 2p 3d?

Ivan

5s subshell represent that n is equal to 5 and l is equal to 0.
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3 years ago

Find the domain and range, and is it a function?

tino4ka555 [31]

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3 years ago

2 1/2 * 1 1/6=???<br>I need help can someone explain this for me?

Dovator [93]

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35/12

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3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

According to national data, 5.1% of burglaries are cleared with arrests. A new detective is assigned to six different burglaries

blagie [28]

Answer:

26.95% probability that at least one of them is cleared with an arrest

Step-by-step explanation:

For each burglary, there are only two possible outcomes. Either it is cleared, or it is not. The probability of a burglary being cleared is independent of other burglaries. So we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

In which $C_{n,x}$ is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

$C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}$

And p is the probability of X happening.

5.1% of burglaries are cleared with arrests.

This means that $p = 0.051$

A new detective is assigned to six different burglaries.

This means that $n = 6$

What is the probability that at least one of them is cleared with an arrest?

Either none are cleared, or at least one is. The sum of the probabilities of these events is 100% = 1. So

$P(X = 0) + P(X \geq 1) = 1$

We want $P(X \geq 1)$

Then

$P(X \geq 1) = 1 - P(X = 0)$

In which

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

$P(X = 0) = C_{6,0}.(0.051)^{0}.(0.949)^{6} = 0.7305$

$P(X \geq 1) = 1 - P(X = 0) = 1 - 0.7305 = 0.2695$

26.95% probability that at least one of them is cleared with an arrest

8 0

3 years ago