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Dennis_Churaev [7]
3 years ago
13

Urn I contains three red chips and one white chip. Urn II contains two red chips and two white chips. One chip is drawn from eac

h urn and transferred to the other urn. Then a chip is drawn from the first urn. What is the probability that the chip ultimately drawn from urn I is red?

Mathematics
1 answer:
Lelechka [254]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

0.7

Step-by-step explanation:

The Probability of Chips in Urn 1

P(R) = 3/4

P(W) = 1/4

The Probability of Chips in Urn 2

P(R) = 1/2

P(W) = 1/2

The problem can be solved using probability tree method. The probability tree of the given question is attached with the answer.

The Probability tree shows the exchange of chips firstly and then the final probability of Red Chips and White Chips in Urn 1.

To find the final answer we can sum up the probabilities of the branches which are ticked in the diagram.

Probability of Branch 1 (ticked in diagram)

3/4 x 3/5 x 3/4 = 0.3375

Probability of Branch 2 (ticked in diagram)

3/4 x 2/5 x 2/4 = 0.15

Probability of Branch 3 (ticked in diagram)

1/4 x 2/5 x 1 = 0.1

Probability of Branch 4 (ticked in diagram)

1/4 x 3/5 x 3/4 = 0.1125

Final Probability = 0.3375 + 0.15 + 0.1 + 0.1125

= 0.7 Answer

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muminat

6-(-12)=18

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3 years ago
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Step-by-step explanation:

Simple interest formula

A = P (1 + rt)

Compound interest formula

A = P(1 + \frac{r}{n})^{nt}

a.

A = 5000 (1 + 0.025*1)\\A=5000(1.025)\\A=5125

Simple interest is $125

b

. A = 5000 (1 + \frac{0.025}{1})^{1*1}      \\A=5000(1.025)\\A= 5125

Compound interest is $125

c. the result for both a and b are the same

d.

A = 5000 (1 + 0.025*3) \\A=5000(1.075) \\A=5375

the simple interest is $375

e

. A = 5000 (1 + \frac{0.025}{1})^{1*3}] \\A=5000(1.025)^3 \\A=5000(1.077)\\A= 5385

the compound interest is $385

f. the result compared, compound interest is $10 more than simple interest

g.

A = 5000 (1 + 0.02*6) \\A=5000(1.12) \\A=5600

the simple interest is $600

h.

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the compound interest is $4869

i. the result from g and h, h is over 8 times bigger than g.

j. interest compound annually is not the same as simple interest, only for the case of a and b seeing that it is for 1 year. but for 2years and above there is difference as seen in c to h

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So, the axis of symmetry is the line <span><span>x=2</span><span>x=2</span></span> .

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Provided the 2% interest rate. The interest itself over a period of 4 years, compounds to $300. Thus, the total interest plus the cost of the fitness equipment would be a total of, $4,050.
6 0
3 years ago
Please help me with this asap!
DIA [1.3K]

Answer:

16,6

Step-by-step explanation:

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10Sin90 = XSin37

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