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Stella [2.4K]
3 years ago
14

Deal Leasing leased equipment to Hand Company on January 1, 2021. The leased equipment's book value is $420,000 with no estimate

d residual value at the end of its useful life. The remaining useful life of the leased equipment is 15 years. The lease payments were calculated to provide the lessor a 10% return. Ten annual lease payments of $60,000 are due at the beginning of each year beginning January 1, 2021. Both companies use the straight-line method in depreciation/amortization their assets.

Business
1 answer:
anygoal [31]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

The requirements are missing, so I looked for a similar question. This is a financial lease since the PV of the lease payments represents 97% of the asset's value.

January 1, 2021, equipment leased from Deal leasing

Dr Right of use asset 405,541.20

    Cr Lease liability 405,541.20

the right of use asset = PV of lease payments = $60,000 x 6.75902 (PV annuity due, 10%, 10 periods) = $405,541.20

January 1, 2021, first lease payment

Dr Lease liability 60,000

    Cr Cash 60,000

December 31, 2021, depreciation expense on leased asset

Dr Depreciation expense 40,554.12

    Cr Accumulated depreciation 40,554.12

depreciation expense = $405,541.20 / 10 = $40,554.12

December 31, 2021, interest expense on asset lease

Dr Interest expense 34,554.12

    Cr Interest payable 34,554.12

interest expense = ($405,541.20 - $60,000) x 10% = $34,554.12

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Paulina Lesky is 27 years old and has accumulated $7,500 in her self-directed defined contribution pension plan. Each year she c
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Answer:

The answer is "Option D".

Explanation:

The amount accrued in the pension system until now = 7500

Danger or security account proportion = 20 \%

The percentage of the amount kept in a safe account (PV) = 7500\times 20\% = 1500\%

Number of investment years owned by (n)=63-27=36

Risk-free return rate I = 3\%

Combined total amount up to age 63 (formula for the current value) = Present \ value\times (1+i)^n

=1500\times (1+3\%)^{36}\\\\=4347.417492

The contribution is \$2000 a year and the employer corresponds with the same amount for the pension plan.

Total annual contribution = 2000+2000 = 4000

Risk-free or healthy account proportion= 20\%

Amount invested annually (P) = 4000\times 20\% = 800 \ (Risk \ free)

Annual deposit amount (n) for years=63-27 =36

Returns free of risk I = 3\%

An cumulative sum due to an annuity= P\times \frac{(((1+i)^n)-1)}{i}

=800\times \frac{(((1+3\%)^{36})-1)}{3\%}\\\\=50620.75541

Total amount accumulated in safe account = FV\  of \ PV + FV of annuity

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