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Serggg [28]
4 years ago
12

What type of triangle is formed by joining the points D(7, 3), E(8, 1), and

Mathematics
1 answer:
KiRa [710]4 years ago
7 0

D(7, 3), E(8, 1), and  F(4, -1)

We calculate the squared distances between the points:

DE^2 = 1^2 + 2^2 = 5

EF^2=4^2+2^2=20

DF^2=3^2+4^2=25

Since DF^2=DE^2+EF^2 we have a right triangle with hypotenuse DF.

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Answer:

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In a random sample of 45 newborn babies, what is the probability that 40% or fewer of the sample are boys. (Use 3 decimal places
erastova [34]

Answer:

z= \frac{p- \mu_p}{\sigma_p}

And the z score for 0.4 is

z = \frac{0.4-0.4}{\sigma_p} = 0

And then the probability desired would be:

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Step-by-step explanation:

The normal approximation for this case is satisfied since the value for p is near to 0.5 and the sample size is large enough, and we have:

np = 45*0.4= 18 >10

n(1-p) = 45*0.6= 27 >10

For this case we can assume that the population proportion have the following distribution  

p \sim N(p,\sqrt{\frac{p(1-p)}{n}})

Where:

\mu_{p}= \hat p = 0.4

\sigma_p = \sqrt{\frac{p(1-p)}(n} =\sqrt{\frac{0.4(1-0.4)}(45}= 0.0703

And we want to find this probability:

P(p

And we can use the z score formula given by:

z= \frac{p- \mu_p}{\sigma_p}

And the z score for 0.4 is

z = \frac{0.4-0.4}{\sigma_p} = 0

And then the probability desired would be:

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7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Why can't irrational numbers be whole numbers
meriva
Irrational numbers cannot be represented by a ratio of two integers.

All whole numbers, however, can. This can be done by placing the number over 1. For example 0/1, 34/1, 173635278/1.
5 0
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Each week when Kara goes grocery shopping the purchase g gallons of milk and e cartons of eggs. Which expression illustrates the
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3 years ago
A bag contains 40 tickets, each numbered between 1-40. If a ticket is drawn at random, find the probability of it being odd or l
Crank

Answer:

you have a 50% chance of getting an odd number and a 60% chance of getting a number less than 26.

Step-by-step explanation:

Between 1 and 40 there are 20 odd numbers

20÷ 40 x 100=50, This means you have a 50% (20:20) chance of getting an odd number.

Between 1 and 40 there 25 numbers less than 26

15÷25 x 100=60, This means you have a 60% (25:15) chance of getting a number under 26.

3 0
4 years ago
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