Answer:
(a)The implied cost of shortage per quart is = $4.75
(b) This could be viewed as reasonable figure, because is (approximately) equal to the loss per quart of strawberry.
Explanation:
Solution
Given that:
Mean =μ = 40
Standard deviation =σ = 6
Excess cost= Ce =$0.35
The amount ordered =S₀= 49
Thus
Z =(49 -40)/6
=1.5
Now
From the Table Z, we have the service level which is,
P(X <49 ) = P(Z < 1.5)
= 0.9332
Since we know that,
Service level (SL) =Cs/Cs+Ce
So,
0,9332 =Cs/Cs+0.35
Thus
0.9332Cs + 0.35* 0.9332 =Cs
0.0668Cs =0.32662
Hence
Cs = $4.75
(a) The implied cost of shortage per quart is = $4.75
(b) Therefore,this could be regarded as reasonable figure, because is (approximately) equal to the loss per quart of strawberry.
Answer:
$96,154.20
Explanation:
We are to find the future value of the annuity
The formula for calculating future value = A (B / r)
B = [(1 + r)^n] - 1
A = Amount
R = interest rate
N = number of years
[(1.08)^9 - 1 ] / 0.08 = 12.487558
12.487558 x $7,700 = $96,154.20
Answer:
(A). People may expect earnings to fall in the future, perhaps because the firm will be faced with increased competition.
Explanation:
Price Earnings ratio of a company represents market price per share of a company's stock in relation to it's earnings per share.
Price Earnings ratio(PER) is given by the following formula:
PER = 
A lower P/E Ratio indicates that a company's market price of a share is lower relative to it's earnings. This means the company's stock is undervalued.
It can also mean that the company's earnings have increased which in turn has increased it's earnings per share.
Investors in general expect lower earnings in future for the stock of a company with low P/E Ratio.
Answer:
Value of the bond = $862.013
Explanation:
The value of the bond is the present value of the future cash receipts expected from the bond. The value is equal to present values of interest payment and the redemption value (RV).
Value of Bond = PV of interest + PV of RV
The value of the bond can be worked out as follows:
Step 1
<em>Calculate the PV of Interest payment
</em>
Present value of the interest payment
PV = Interest payment × (1- (1+r)^(-n))/r
Interest payment = $40
PV = 40 × (1 - (1.05)^(-12×2)/0.05)
= 40 × 13.7986
= 551.945
Step 2
<em>PV of redemption Value
</em>
PV of RV = RV × (1+r)^(-n)
= 1000 × (1.05)^(-12×2)
= 310.067
Step 3
<em>Calculate Value of the bond </em>
= 551.94567 + 310.067
=862.01
Value of the bond = $862.013
Answer:
c. The present value of the perpetuity has to be higher than the present value of either the ordinary annuity or the annuity due
Explanation:
Considering the following statements:
- the ordinary perpetuity, the payments must occur on the first day of each monthly period. Hence this statement is incorrect.
- The ordinary annuity would be more valuable than the annuity due if both had a life of 10 years. Incorrect.
- In case of perpetuity the times is not limited, hence would get the higher return.
