1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
NNADVOKAT [17]
3 years ago
7

Momentum Rollerblades has three product lines: D, E, and F. The following information is available:

Business
1 answer:
Mila [183]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Operating income will increase by $16,000. This is not given as one of the options.

Explanation:

The difference between the sales and variable expense gives the contribution margin. The contribution margin net the fixed cost gives the operating income or loss.

                                                     D                         E                    F

Sales revenue                            $90,000        $40,000        $30,000

Variable costs                            <u>($40,000)</u>      <u>($10,000)</u>       <u>($10,000)</u>

Contribution margin                   $50,000        $30,000        $20,000

Fixed costs                                 <u>($10,000) </u>       <u>($5,000)</u>       <u>($25,000) </u>

Operating income (loss)             $40,000         $25,000       ($5,000)

The total operating income is

= $40,000 + $25,000 + ($5,000)

= $60,000

Should the fixed costs of F be eliminated, the operating income/(loss) of F

= $21,000 - $5,000

= $16,000

This is the net increase in the total operating income.

You might be interested in
Bonner Automotive has shareholders' equity of $218,700. The firm owes a total of $141,000 of which 40 percent is payable within
MA_775_DIABLO [31]

Answer:

$93,500

Explanation:

Net Working Capital = Current Assets - Current Liabilities

Current Assets = Total Equity + Liability - Fixed Assets

= $218,700 + $141,000 - $209,800 = $149,900

Current Liability = $141,000 X 40% = $56,400

As out of total due 40% is payable within a year, which means it is current liability.

Net working capital = $149,900 (current assets) - $56,400 (current liability)

= $93,500

6 0
3 years ago
The balance sheet below reflects Zee Bank after its purchase of $50 million in government securities from the Fed. Assume a requ
UkoKoshka [18]

Answer:

$500 million

Explanation:

The solution of the money supply and its effect is here below:-

Decrease in money supply = $50 million ÷ reserve ratio

= $50 million ÷ 10%

= $500 million

If $50 million were used to repay loans, that will have raised money supply. Thus, buying $50 million in government securities from the fed reduces the supply of capital.

3 0
3 years ago
The primary difference between variable costing and absorption costing is
IgorLugansk [536]

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "D": in absorption​ costing, fixed manufacturing overhead is a product cost.

Explanation:

Absorption costing or full costing includes all costs related to the production process like the fixed costs. Variable costing, on the other hand, only includes the variable costs from the production. Absorption costing incorporates allocating fixed overhead costs of each unit produced during a certain period.

4 0
3 years ago
Because resources are scarce, if society produces more of one commodity, it has to sacrifice some amount of another commodity. T
ycow [4]

Answer:

C.  the opportunity cost

Explanation:

The opportunity cost -

It refers to the amount of benefit received by the business , investors or an individual , during the process of selecting any alternative , is referred to as the opportunity cost .

These cost can be ignored very easily , in case not seen properly .

The opportunity cost can very well be used to any important and educational decisions for the betterment of the company or firm.

Hence , from the given information of the question,

The correct option is C.  the opportunity cost .

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The overarching purpose of credit risk analysis is to: Question 11 options: a) Identify credit opportunities b) Determine a comp
Kamila [148]

Answer:

d) Quantify potential credit losses

Explanation:

Credit risk is the possibility of a loss happening because of a borrower's failure to payback a loan or meet up with contractual obligations. The overaching purpose of credit risk analysis is the quantification of the level of credit risk that the borrower poses to the lender. The purpose of credit analysis is to determine if borrowers are credit worthy by quantifying the risk of loss that the lender may experience.

Therefore option D is the answer.

6 0
3 years ago
Other questions:
  • WILL GIVE BRAINLIEST, PLEASE HELP ASAP!
    5·2 answers
  • RL Photography reported net income of $305,900 for 2014. Included in the income statement were depreciation expense of $19,272,
    5·1 answer
  • A business owner makes 50 items by hand in 40 hours. She could have earned $20 an hour working for someone else. Her total expli
    9·1 answer
  • Which describes a situation in which a shortage occurs?
    5·2 answers
  • A primary characteristic that distinguishes governments from businesses is a) The need to generate revenues equal to or in exces
    9·1 answer
  • Your boss would like your help on a marketing research project he is conducting on the relationship between the price of soda an
    12·1 answer
  • Suppose that a government that is skeptical of efforts to regulate prices charged by private companies is nevertheless concerned
    7·1 answer
  • XYZ, Inc. purchased an office building on October 1, 2020, that was put on the books at $800,000. The building is expected to be
    15·1 answer
  • Which of the following transactions does not affect cash during a period? Group of answer choices Write-off of an uncollectible
    13·1 answer
  • A firm that engages in foreign direct investment (fdi) in other countries is called a(n):_________
    7·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!