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frosja888 [35]
2 years ago
11

Can someone help me please?​

Mathematics
1 answer:
jeka57 [31]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

85

Step-by-step explanation:

because A is half of that and if you divided 170 by 2 you would get 85, I think that's how you do it.

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What is the value of f(-1/4)?
atroni [7]

Answer:

i think its -0.25

Step-by-step explanation:

i dont really ave an explanation a just used a calculator

5 0
3 years ago
How many ounces of 50% alcohol solution must be mixed with 80 ounces of a 20% alcohol solution to make a 40% alcohol solution?
Paraphin [41]
X = amount of 50% solution
y = total amount after mixing

Note that the amount of alcohol in the 20% solution is 80 (0.2) = 16 oz.

We have 2 unknowns, so we need 2 equations:
first, we can write the equation for the total volume:
y = x + 80

next, apply the percentages to get an equation for the amount of alcohol:

0.4 y = 0.5 x + 16

Finally, solve the pair of equations (in this case, by substitution of the 1st into the second:
0.4 (x + 80) = 0.5x + 16
0.4 x + 32 = 0.5X + 16
rearrange and combine like terms:
0.1x = 16
x = 160
from the 1st equation:
y = 160 + 80 = 240
8 0
2 years ago
Mrs. McKee is thinking of buying solar panels to put on the roof of her new house the sunny solar company told her that for ever
Cloud [144]
I can’t solve this because there is not enough information
5 0
2 years ago
For each given p, let ???? have a binomial distribution with parameters p and ????. Suppose that ???? is itself binomially distr
pshichka [43]

Answer:

See the proof below.

Step-by-step explanation:

Assuming this complete question: "For each given p, let Z have a binomial distribution with parameters p and N. Suppose that N is itself binomially distributed with parameters q and M. Formulate Z as a random sum and show that Z has a binomial distribution with parameters pq and M."

Solution to the problem

For this case we can assume that we have N independent variables X_i with the following distribution:

X_i Bin (1,p) = Be(p) bernoulli on this case with probability of success p, and all the N variables are independent distributed. We can define the random variable Z like this:

Z = \sum_{i=1}^N X_i

From the info given we know that N \sim Bin (M,q)

We need to proof that Z \sim Bin (M, pq) by the definition of binomial random variable then we need to show that:

E(Z) = Mpq

Var (Z) = Mpq(1-pq)

The deduction is based on the definition of independent random variables, we can do this:

E(Z) = E(N) E(X) = Mq (p)= Mpq

And for the variance of Z we can do this:

Var(Z)_ = E(N) Var(X) + Var (N) [E(X)]^2

Var(Z) =Mpq [p(1-p)] + Mq(1-q) p^2

And if we take common factor Mpq we got:

Var(Z) =Mpq [(1-p) + (1-q)p]= Mpq[1-p +p-pq]= Mpq[1-pq]

And as we can see then we can conclude that   Z \sim Bin (M, pq)

8 0
3 years ago
Find the difference: (6y3 + 17y − 3) − (4y3 − 11y + 9)
earnstyle [38]
<span>(6y3 + 17y − 3) − (4y3 − 11y + 9)
</span>= 6y3 + 17y − 3 − 4y3 + 11y - 9
= 2y3 + 28y  - 12
3 0
3 years ago
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