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Zepler [3.9K]
3 years ago
15

I need help!!!! 5 (p + 6 ) = 8p

Mathematics
1 answer:
boyakko [2]3 years ago
6 0
P would equal 6/7 if you are asking for that
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Please help me out with my maths I would really appreciate it ​
garik1379 [7]

Answer:

a.

1. The rule in this sequence is (+5) every next pattern

2. 22, 27, 32, 37

3. 42

4. 12 term

5. 67

b.

1. The rule in this sequence is (-3) every next pattern

2. -7, -10, -13, -16

3. -16

4. 13 term

5. -37

Step-by-step explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A player of a video game is confronted with a series of four opponents and an 80% probability of defeating each opponent. Assume
mixer [17]

Answer:

(a) 0.4096

(b) 0.64

(c) 0.7942

Step-by-step explanation:

The probability that the player wins is,

P(W)=0.80

Then the probability that the player losses is,

P(L)=1-P(W)=1-0.80=0.20

The player is playing the video game with 4 different opponents.

It is provided that when the player is defeated by an opponent the game ends.

All the possible ways the player can win is: {L, WL, WWL, WWWL and WWWW)

(a)

The results from all the 4 opponents are independent, i.e. the result of a game played with one opponent is unaffected by the result of the game played with another opponent.

The probability that the player defeats all four opponents in a game is,

P (Player defeats all 4 opponents) = P(W)\times P(W)\times P(W)\times P(W)=[P(W)]^{4} =(0.80)^{4}=0.4096

Thus, the probability that the player defeats all four opponents in a game is 0.4096.

(b)

The probability that the player defeats at least two opponents in a game is,

P (Player defeats at least 2) = 1 - P (Player losses the 1st game) - P (Player losses the 2nd game) = 1-P(L)-P(WL)

                                    =1-(0.20)-(0.80\times0.20)\\=1-0.20-0.16\\=0.64

Thus, the probability that the player defeats at least two opponents in a game is 0.64.

(c)

Let <em>X</em> = number of times the player defeats all 4 opponents.

The probability that the player defeats all four opponents in a game is,

P(WWWW) = 0.4096.

Then the random variable X\sim Bin(n=3, p=0.4096)

The probability distribution of binomial is:

P(X=x)={n\choose x}p^{x} (1-p)^{n-x}

The probability that the player defeats all the 4 opponents at least once is,

P (<em>X</em> ≥ 1) = 1 - P (<em>X</em> < 1)

             = 1 - P (<em>X</em> = 0)

             =1-[{3\choose 0}(0.4096)^{0} (1-0.4096)^{3-0}]\\=1-[1\times1\times (0.5904)^{3}\\=1-0.2058\\=0.7942

Thus, the probability that the player defeats all the 4 opponents at least once is 0.7942.

3 0
3 years ago
Three months ago, Santos could walk 2 miles in 40 minutes. Today he can walk 2 miles in 25 minutes. Find the percent of change a
djyliett [7]
It would be 13 becsue 12.5 time 2 = 25 so round that it = 13
7 0
3 years ago
Write a function rule for the table.
tatiyna

integral function is used for the table

3 0
3 years ago
Javier works in a photo lab and needs to make a reduced copy of a photograph that is 8 inches long. The customer wants the copy
dexar [7]
Every 5 pushes of the button would lead to a 4.5 in. photograph.

Hoped I helped!
4 0
3 years ago
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