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yan [13]
4 years ago
15

A 37-year-old client with type 1 diabetes and good glycemic control is pregnant for the third time. Her first child is 4 years o

ld, and her second pregnancy resulted in a stillbirth. She is seen in the antepartum testing unit for a nonstress test (NST) at 33 weeks' gestation. What are the primary risk factors in the client's history that indicate a need for the NST? Select all that apply.
1.Age greater than 35 years
2.The risk for placenta previa
3.The risk for placental insufficiency
4.A history of stillbirth from her last pregnancy
5.Maternal history of hypertension
Business
1 answer:
polet [3.4K]4 years ago
8 0

Answer:

3,4 and 5

Explanation:

A pregnant woman with diabetes is prone to placenta insufficiency thus being unable to support the fetus which can lead to fetal death. Additionally, a history of hypertension which is usually associated with diabetes can also affect efficient functioning of the placenta. Lastly, the history of stillbirth is also an indication of NST.

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You are to interview an entrepreneur, then summarize the interview questions. This assignment is worth 4 grades.
Trava [24]

Explanation:

An informational interview is a wonderful way to network and a fantastic way to learn more about a career in which you are interested in possibly pursuing. And these types of interviews don't just provide solid information to those interested in corporate careers.

If what you are interested in most is starting your own business rather than working for someone else, an informational interviews is a way to find out what it takes to be a successful entrepreneur and learn more about what running your own business entails. These types of conversations can also help you make a well-informed decision about whether running your own business fits into your vision for your life and career.

4 0
3 years ago
The allowance for doubtful accounts currently has a debit balance of $200. The company's management estimates that 2.5% of net c
lidiya [134]

Answer:

Bad debt expense (w/o allowance) = $2,875

Bad debt expense ( with allowance) = $2,675.

Explanation:

According to the scenario, the given data are as follows:

Net credit sales = $115,000

Uncollectible percentage = 2.5%

So, we can calculate the bad debt expense without Allowance for doubtful accounts by using following method:

Bad debt expense ( W/o allowance) = $115,000 × 2.5%

= $2,875

After Allowance for doubtful expense

Bad debt expense = $2,875 - $200

= $2,675

4 0
3 years ago
Government Purchases $15 Personal Consumption 120 Gross Investment 25 Consumption of Fixed Capital (depreciation) 5 Exports 8 Im
beks73 [17]

Answer: $156

Explanation:

The gross domestic product is referred to as the value of the final goods which a particular country produces for that economy.

Based on the information given, the GDP will be calculated as:

GDP = C + I + G + X - M

where C = consumption = $120

I = Investment = $25

G = government purchases = $15

X = exports = $8

M = imports = $12

GDP = C + I + G + X - IM

GDP = $120 + $25 + $15 + $8 - $12

GDP = $156

4 0
3 years ago
5. Find an example of a video ad either on TV or on the Internet, and then answer the
mezya [45]

Answer:

nike brand add

Explanation:

the add Brings inspiration and innovation to every athlete in the world by creating groundbreaking sport innovations, by making our products more sustainably, by building a creative and diverse global team and by making a positive impact in communities where we live and work.

8 0
3 years ago
An offer is made to sell a house, and the offeree has deposited an acceptance letter in the mailbox, but it has not been receive
mash [69]

Answer:

False

Explanation:

As the contract was formed when the offeree has deposited acceptance letter in the mailbox, hence the offeror is bond to sell the house.

4 0
3 years ago
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