I believe the answer would be D
Answer:
$2722.82
Explanation:
Present value of loan = $1,000 * [(1+5%)^3 - 1]/ 5%
= $1,000 * (1.157625 - 1) / 0.05
= $1,000 * 0.157625/ 0.05
= $1,000 * 3.1525
= $3152.50
The present value of loan before bank restructuring is $3152.
Future value = Cash flow / (1+r)^n
= $3152 / (1+0.05)^3
= $3152 / (1.05)^3
= $3152 / 1.157625
= $2722.82
Therefore, the final payment required to pay to make indifferent for both payment is $2722.82
Answer:
D. Date Accounts and Explanation Debit Credit Interest Expense 21,385 Discount on Bonds Payable 235 Cash 21,150
Explanation:
The journal entry is shown below:
Interest expense $21,385
To Discount on bond payable $235
To Cash $21,150
(Being the interest expense is recorded)
The computation is given below:
The interest expense is
= $470,000 ÷ 100 × 91 × 10% ÷ 12 months × 6 months
= $21,385
The cash is
= $470,000 × 9% ÷ 12 months × 6 months
= $21,150
And, the remaining balance is credited to discount on note payable
We simply debited the interest expense as it increased the expenses and credited the cash as it reduced the assets plus the remaining amount is credited to discount on bond payable
Answer:
Purchases is $3400 million
Explanation:
Cost of goods formula comes readily helpful in this case.
Cost of goods sold=beginning inventory+purchases-ending inventory
by arranging the formula,the purchases formula is given thus:
Purchases=cost of goods sold-beginning inventory+ending inventory
cost of goods sold is $2,900 million
ending inventory is $4,600 million
beginning inventory is $4,100 million
purchases=($2,900-$4,100+$4,600) million
purchases=3400 million
