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miv72 [106K]
3 years ago
14

Why does it take 3 copies of 1/6 to show the same amount as 1 copy of 1/2?

Mathematics
2 answers:
melisa1 [442]3 years ago
7 0
Because 1/2 of 6 =1/3 and 1/2×1/3=1/6
tekilochka [14]3 years ago
4 0
The number 3 can be expressed as a fraction 3/1. If we multiply the fraction 1/6 by 3/1 we get:
1/6 x 3/1 = (1 x 3)/(6 x 1)
(1 x 3)/(6 x 1) = 3/6
Now just simplify the fraction:
3/6 = 1/2
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3 years ago
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<h3>How to determine the probability?</h3>

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Read more about probability at:

brainly.com/question/11234923

#SPJ1

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