Answer:
Lapping scheme
Explanation:
Lapping scheme -
It is a fraud practice , which involves the alteration of the accounts received to hide or cover the stolen payments .
This method involve taking the subsequent receivable payments and using them to cover the theft .
<u>And the next receivable is only applied when the previous is unpaid receivable .</u>
Answer:
The answer is $45,000
Explanation:
$45,000
- Net Short Term Capital gain +Net Long Term Capital loss= 65,000+ (250,000)= -185,000
-Net Long Term Capital loss(2015)+Net Short Term Capital gain (2016)+Net Long Term Capital Gain(2017)
= 60,000+45,000+35,000=140,000
-185,000+140,000= <u>(45,000)</u>
Answer:
1
Db Salaries expenses__4000
Cr Accrued salaries__________4000
Accrued on December 31
Explanation:
Accrued salaries refers to the amount of liability remaining at the end of a reporting period for salaries that have been earned by employees but not yet paid to them.
Weekly payroll 5000
Day payroll 1000
Monday-Thursday 4000
1
Db Salaries expenses__4000
Cr Accrued salaries__________4000
Accrued on December 31
Answer:
It increases by 50 units.
Explanation:
Current break even point = 
Here, fixed cost = $4,500
Contribution per unit = Selling price - Variable Cost = $20 - $10 = $10
Current break even point = 
If variable cost increase by 10% then revised variable cost = $10 + 10% = $11
Contribution per unit = $20 - $11 = $9 per unit
Break even sales in units = 
Difference in original and revised break even = Revised - Original = 500 - 450 units = 50 units,
Thus original break even increases by 50 units, = 50/450 = 11.11% increase.
Final Answer
It increases by 50 units.
It would actually be an increased production by the business.
Haha, I had to think for a tiny bit and re-check my answer to make sure it was right before giving it. Would hate to see you get it wrong.
