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3 years ago

The primary advantage of being a limited partner is:

Business

1 answer:

notka56 [123]3 years ago

7 0

<h2>Maximum loss limited to their capital investment</h2>

Explanation:

As an investor there is a possibility of both profit and loss. If it is sole proprietorship, the profit or loss will be put on the his / her shoulder.

In case of limited partner, the advantage is that if there is a loss occurred it will" limit to their capital investment".

He/she enjoys "protected investments"

There will not be any huge loss since the capital invested is limited.

"A company can have more than one limited partner"

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Marmol Corporation uses the allowance method for bad debts. During year 1, Marmol charged $30,000 to bad debt expense, and wrote

4vir4ik [10]

Answer: Option (d)

Explanation:

Under this case the write off will be as follow:

Debit Credit

Allowance for doubtful accounts 25,200

Accounts receivables 25,200

Here, in this case the Allowance for the doubtful accounts and Accounts receivables are further decreased as the outcome of the transaction made. Thus, there will be no further effect on working capital. Therefore the $30,000 that is bad debt would then be stated as the credit to allowance account. This will then decrease the working capital by $30,000.

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4 years ago

When Mi Ola’s purchasing manager places the weekly order for new bikinis based on how many of each type have sold that week, thi

geniusboy [140]

Answer:

The process of making this decision By the CLASSICAL MODEL of decision making

Explanation:

The classical general equilibrium model was developed in the 18th century within the neoclassical economics and it is related to classical economics.

The classical general equilibrium model aims to describe the economy by taking an aggregate of the behavior of individuals and firms.

Decision taken using this Method is usually based on what the eyes are seeing. Facts.

From the text, Ola buys new bikinis weekly based on the designs the customers are buying more. He decides on what to buy for the new week by looking at the designs that his customers went for the previous week. This is a clear case of Classical model of Decision making.

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4 years ago

An investment offers $6,700 per year for 15 years, with the first payment occurring one year from now. a. If the required return

maksim [4K]

Answer:

a.$65,072.07

b.$100,810.19

c.$110,254.18

d.$111,666.67

Explanation:

a. The value of investment today if payment per year of $6,700 is made for 15 years is given as follows:

Present value today=R[(1-(1+i)^-n)/i]

Where

R=payment to made yearly=$6,700

i=interest per annum=6%

n=number of payments=15

Present value today=6,700[(1-(1+6%)^-15)/6%]=$65,072.07

b. The value of investment today if payment per year of $6,700 is made for 40 years is given as follows:

Present value today=6,700[(1-(1+6%)^-40)/6%]=$100,810.19

c. The value of investment today if payment per year of $6,700 is made for 75 year is given as follows:

Present value today=6,700[(1-(1+6%)^-75)/6%]=$110,254.18

d. The value of investment today if payment per year of $6,700 occurred forever

Present value today=P/i=6,700/6%=$111,666.67

where P=6,700, i=6%

8 0

3 years ago

The Alford Group had 260,000 shares of common stock outstanding at January 1, 2021. The following activities affected common sha

shepuryov [24]

Answer:

1.EPS 2021 = net icome / no of shares =$1,419,000/ 284000 =4.99 = 5

2.EPS 2022 = $1,419,000/ 852000 = 1.67 = 2

3.EPS will be shown as $5

Explanation:

Number of shares= 260000

issued shares = 24000

shares at the end 2021 = 284000

New issue 284 000*2/1 = 568000

shares at the end 2022 = 852000

8 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Highly Suspect Corp. has current liabilities of $401,000, a quick ratio of 1.50, inventory turnover of 3.70, and a current ratio

Scrat [10]

Answer:

$3,115,770

Explanation:

Given:

Current ratio = 3.60

Current liabilities = $401, 000

Quick ratio = 1.50

Inventory turnover = 3.70

Current ratio is calculated by dividing your current assets by your current liabilities.

$Current\ ratio = \frac{Current\ Assets}{Current\ Liabilities}$

$3.60 = \frac{Current\ Assets}{401, 000}$

Current Assets = 3.60 × 401,000

= $1,443,600

$Quick\ ratio = \frac{(Current\ Assets\ -\ Inventory)}{Current Liabilities}$

$1.50 = \frac{1,443,600\ -\ Inventory}{401,000}$

1.50 × 401,000 = 1,443,600 - Inventory

601,500 = 1,443,600 - Inventory

Inventory = 1,443,600 - 601,500

= $842,100

$Inventory\ Turnover = \frac{Cost\ of\ Goods\ Sold}{Inventory}$

$3.70 = \frac{Cost\ of\ Goods\ Sold}{842,100}$

Cost of Goods Sold = 3.70 × 842,100

= $3,115,770

8 0

3 years ago