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user100 [1]
3 years ago
14

What goes into 72 and 8 ? :)

Mathematics
2 answers:
DerKrebs [107]3 years ago
4 0
8 can go into 72 and 8. Hope I could help!!:-)
patriot [66]3 years ago
3 0
8 goes into 72 and 8 

72÷8=9
8÷8=1
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A certain windshield wiper is 10 inches long. The rubber blade is 6 inches long and attached at the outside end. If the wiper sw
Sloan [31]
Area of sector=fraction of sector times area of circle
fraction of sector=degrees/360
and area of circle=pir^2

so
hold  a sec, we have the wiper on the outside, so we want to find the outside ring thing
do
area big sector-area small sector
or even better
(degrees/360) times (area big-areasmall)
big is 10
small is  4 (10-6=4)
areabig=10^2 times pi or 100pi
areasmall=4^2 times pi or 16pi
areabig-areasmall=100pi-16pi=84pi

then find the fraction

84pi times (150/360)=35pi square inches
4 0
3 years ago
I WILL GIVE BRAINLIEST Given: BFCE, AB perpendicular to BE, DE perpendicular to BE,
mars1129 [50]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

From the given picture,

∠ABE = ∠DEF = 90° [Since, AB and DE are perpendicular to DE]

m∠ECA = m∠BFD [Given]

m∠ECA + m∠ACB = 180° [Liner pair of angles]

m∠BFD + m∠DFE = 180° [Liner pair of angles]

m∠ACB + m∠ECA = m∠BFD + m∠DFE [Transitive property]

m∠ACB = m∠DEF [Since, m∠ECA = m∠BFD]

Therefore, ΔABC ≅ ΔDEF [By AA property of similarity]

3 0
2 years ago
Omgggg help me for brainly what’s 4 x 5 divided by 2
yanalaym [24]

Answer:

10

Step-by-step explanation:

\frac{4 x 5}{2}

4 x 5 = 20

\frac{20}{2} = 10

3 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
NEED HELP 45 POINTS PLZ
miskamm [114]

Answer:

I have given the answer in the chat box as i was not able to post officialy

Step-by-step explanation:

6 0
2 years ago
If f(x)=sinx 2x 1 and g is the inverse function of f
Bingel [31]

The value of the derivative of the function g(x) at x = 1 will be 1/3. Then the correct option is A.

<h3>What is an inverse function?</h3>

A function that may convert into another function is known as an inverse function or anti-function.

If the function is f(x) = sinx + 2x + 1.

Then the derivative of an inverse function g(x) of a function f(x) at a given value (a) will be

\rm g'(a) = \dfrac{1}{f'(g(a))}

The derivative of f(x) will be

f'(x) = cos x + 2

Then the given value of a will be

a = 1

g(x) = f⁻¹(x)

put x = 0, then we have

f(0) = sin 0 + 2(0) + 1

f(0) = 1

Put x = 1, in the function f⁻¹(x). Then we have

f⁻¹(1) = 0

and

g(1) = 0

Then put a = 1, then we have

\rm g'(a) = \dfrac{1}{f'(g(a))}\\\\g'(1) = \dfrac{1}{f'(g(1))}\\\\g'(1) = \dfrac{1}{f'(0)}\\\\g'(1) = \dfrac{1}{\cos 0 + 2}\\\\g'(1) = \dfrac{1}{1+2}= \dfrac{1}{3}

More about the inverse function link is given below.

brainly.com/question/2541698

#SPJ4

8 0
2 years ago
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