Answer:
The correct answer is NO.
Step-by-step explanation:
John is graphing two lines with equations say ax + by + c = 0 and dx + ey +f =0 on his graphing calculator.
For John to get a unique solution the coefficients should follow the following condition 
. So when he plots the lines he get an intersecting pair of lines.
For John to get no solution the coefficients should follow the following condition 
. When we plot in this case we get two parallel lines.
For John to get an infinite many solution the coefficients should follow the following condition 
. And when we plot the lines in this case we get one line superimposed on the other.
Since after graphing, John sees only one line, the lines must have superimposed on one another giving John an infinite number of solutions.
Answer:
0.84
Step-by-step explanation:
1 - 0.4(0.4) = 1 - 0.16 = 0.84
Simply take the probability of the the outcome that is not " at least 1 win", which is the probability of 2 losses;
To find the probability multiply the probabilities along the branches.
Answer:
y=2/3x+14
Step-by-step explanation:
The standard form of an equation in slope-intercept form is y=mx+b where m=slope and b=y-intercept.
Given a y-intercept of 14 and a slope of 2/3, we can plug into the variables and get the equation y=2/3x+14
The x-intercept would be when y=0, so plugging in y=0 to the equation gets us:
0=2/3x+14
-14=2/3x
21=x
So the x-intercept is 21
Answer:
what do u need help with
Step-by-step explanation:
there's no picture
