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alexdok [17]
3 years ago
15

One day after an uncomplicated spontaneous vaginal delivery, a 23-year-old woman, gravida 1, para 1, has the onset of loss of sm

all amounts of urine. she received epidural anesthesia during labor and delivery. examination shows an episiotomy without evidence of hematoma. she is voiding 50 to 75 ml of urine at a time. postvoid residual volume is 300 ml.
Biology
1 answer:
ololo11 [35]3 years ago
8 0

A hypotonic state of the bladder, or conduct and duration of labor and peripartum bladder management, and the use of epidural anesthesia may all contribute to overflow incontinence.

Overflow incontinence is characterized by uncontrolled, spontaneous passing of urine because of an overfull  bladder.

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If nondisjunction occurs during meiosis 1, a pair of homologous chromosomes fail to separate, and one of the daughter cells will have the two chromosomes while the other cell will not get any chromosome from the pair.

If meiosis 1 occurs normally, but nondisjunction occurs in meiosis 2, sister chromatids fail to separate.  

The usual process of meiosis produces four daughter haploid cells (n) from a diploid germ cell (2n). Each daughter cell is haploid because they have half the number of chromosomes of the original one.  

If the diploid number of the original cell is 8 (2n=8), then under normal conditions, each haploid daughter cell should have 4 chromosomes (n = 4).  

But in the exposed example, one pair of homologous chromosomes experiences nondisjunction during meiosis I (in the attached file, you will recognize this pair as the red one). The other chromosomes separate as usual. So one of the daughter cells will have one extra chromosome than expected (five instead of four), and the other daughter cell will lack one chromosome (three instead of four). Meiosis II occurs normally. The final result is the formation of four gametes, two of them with 5 chromosomes, and the other two with 3 chromosomes each.

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