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strojnjashka [21]
3 years ago
6

Suppose in 1992, the average price level in Pacifica was 100, and that in Atlantica it was also 100. In the foreign exchange mar

ket 1 Pacifica pound was exchanged for 1 Atlantica mark. In 2012, the price level in Pacifica had risen to 280 and the price level in Atlantica had risen to 360. According to the relative purchasing power parity (PPP) theory, what should the pound-mark exchange rate be in 2012? If the actual pound per mark exchange rate is 0.5 pound/mark in 2012, is the mark overvalued or undervalued relative to its PPP value?
Business
1 answer:
wolverine [178]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

a. 1 Pound/1.29 or 0.78 Pound/Mark

b. Overvalued

Explanation:

a. What should the pound-mark exchange rate be in 2012?

Ratio of Pacifica pound to Atlantica mark in 2012 = 360/280 = 1.29

Or,

Ratio of Atlantica mark to Pacifica pound in 2012 = 280/360 = 0.78

Therefore, according to the relative purchasing power parity (PPP) theory, one Pacifica pound should equal to 1.29 Atlantica mark, i.e. 1 Pound/1.29 Mark.

This can also be stated differently that 1  Atlantica mark should equal to 0.78 Pacifica pound, i.e. 0.78 Pound/Mark.

b. If the actual pound per mark exchange rate is 0.5 pound/mark in 2012, is the mark overvalued or undervalued relative to its PPP value

Since the PPP pound per mark exchange rate value estimated in a above is 0.78 Pound/ Mark is higher than the actual pound per mark exchange rate of 0.5 pound/mark in 2012, mark is therefore overvalued.

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