D. money your employer pays for your medical insurance.
Answer:
a. the income effect.
Explanation:
The income effect is the change in demand with respect to the good or service that due to change in the purchasing power of the consumer results in change in real income
Since in the situation it is mentioned that she received a big bonus this year and she decided for a trip to europe so here the purchasing power would be changed due to the income effect
hence, the option a is correct
Answer:
The correct answer is negotiation.
Explanation:
A definition of negotiation that appears on the internet expresses, which is the communication process that aims to influence the behavior of others and where both parties reach a WIN-WIN agreement. The reason why at the end of a negotiation both parties can believe that they have won is that neither the interests nor the values have to be opposed, and it is the responsibility of the negotiators to discover the complementary points to develop a negotiation with the win-win scheme.
On the other hand, negotiation techniques are defined as the mechanisms and models of behavior that the parties use to influence the other and achieve a satisfactory solution to a conflictive encounter. These actions are based on the potential power of the parties involved in the negotiation.
Answer:
$60 million
Explanation:
The quick ratio is the financial ratio of the current assets less inventory to current liabilities. While the accounting equation shows the relationship between the elements of a balance sheet which are assets liabilities and equity.
This may be expressed mathematically as
Assets = Liabilities + Equity
Given that quick ration is 1.7 and current liabilities = $50 million
1.7 = current assets less inventory/$50 million
current assets less inventory = 1.7 * $50 million
= $85 million
The total asset is made up of the current assets less inventory, inventory, fixed assets. Let the balance for fixed assets be y
$85 + $65 + y = $210 (all amounts in millions)
y = $210 - $150 (all amounts in millions)
y = $60 (all amounts in millions)
Answer:
C) $27.75
Explanation:
Earnings:
2.00 x 20% = 0.4 (2.00 + 0.40 = 2.40)
2.40 x 20% = 0.48 (2.40 + 0.48 = 2.88)
2.88 x 20% = 0.576 (2.88 + 0.576 = 3.456)
3.46 x 10% = 0.346 (3.46 + 0.346 = 3.806)
3.80 x 10% = 0.38 (3.80 + 0.38 = 4.18)
Dividends:
3.46 x 50% = 1.73
3.80 x 50 % = 1.90
4.18 x 75% = 3.135 ( 50% + 25% = 75%)
P0 = 1.73/[(1.12)^4] + 1.90/[(1.12)^5] + (3.14/(0.12 - 0.05))/1.125
= 27.63
Therefore, If Bean's equity cost of capital is 12%, then the price of a share of Bean's stock is closest to $27.75
