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Lapatulllka [165]
3 years ago
11

HELP HELP HELP

Mathematics
1 answer:
Mashutka [201]3 years ago
7 0

Answer: The building is 316.1 feet tall

Step-by-step explanation: Please refer to the attached diagram for details.

Based on the information provided, Neta is at point W, and looks at the top of a building from an angle of elevation measuring 56 degrees and then looks down to the bottom of the building at an angle of depression measuring 32 degrees. The top of the building is point T while the bottom is point B. A line separating angles 56 and 32 is drawn to point M along the line TB. So we now have two right angled triangles, WTM and WBM. In effect, the length of the building which is line TB has been divided into lines x and y.

From triangle WTM, using angle 56 as the reference angle, we calculate x as;

TanW = opposite/adjacent

Tan56 = x/150

By cross multiplication we now have

Tan56 (150) = x

1.4825 (150) = x

x = 222.375

Also, from triangle WBM, using angle 32 as the reference angle, we calculate y as,

TanW = opposite/adjacent

Tan32 = y/150

By cross multiplication we now have

Tan32 (150) = y

0.6249 (150) = y

y = 93.735

Therefore the entire length of the building can be derived from x + y

Length = x + y

Length = 222.375 + 93.735

Length = 316.11

To the nearest tenth of a foot, the building is 316.1 feet tall.

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How do I simplify 5(3x + 1)?
Wewaii [24]

Answer:

15x + 5

Step-by-step explanation:

5 × 3x + 5× 1

15x + 5

............

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Solve by graphing <br><br> u=v and 6u=2v-24
Vadim26 [7]

Answer:

u=-6 \\ \\ v=-6

Step-by-step explanation:

In this exercise, we have two equations, namely:

u=v \ and \ 6u=2v-24

And we are asked to solve this problem by graphing. In this way, we can write a system of linear equations in two variables, but first of all, let's rewrite:

u=y \\ \\ v=x

Then:

\left\{ \begin{array}{c}y=x\\6y=2x-24\end{array}\right.

So here we have two lines.

The first one is:

\boxed{y=x}

This line passes through the origin and has a slope m=1

The second one is:

6y=2x-24 \\ \\ \therefore y=\frac{2x-24}{6} \\ \\ \therefore \boxed{y=\frac{1}{3}x-4}

This line has a slope m=\frac{1}{3} and cuts the y-axis at b=-4

By using graph tools, we get the graph shown below, then:

x=-6 \\ \\ y=-6 \\ \\ \\ Since \ u=y \ and \ v=x, then: \\ \\ u=-6 \\ \\ v=-6

8 0
3 years ago
A polynomial equation with rational coefficients has the roots:​
Sedbober [7]

Answer: (5 - √1) and (4 + √7)

Step-by-step explanation:

Here we have 4 roots, then this is a polynomial of 4th degree.

We can write it as

a*x⁴ + b*x³ + c*x² + d*x + e = 0

We could rewrite this as the product of two quadratic equations:

(a₁*x² + b₁*x + c₁)*(a₂*x² + b₂*x + c₂) = 0

This will be equal to zero when (a₁*x² + b₁*x + c₁) is equal to zero, and when

(a₂*x² + b₂*x + c₂) is equal to zero.

Then we need to find the roots of these two quadratic equations.

And we know that the roots of a quadratic equation like:

a₁*x² + b₁*x + c₁ are given by:

x = \frac{-b +- \sqrt{b^2 - 4*a*c} }{2*a} = \frac{-b}{2a}   +-\frac{\sqrt{b^2 - 4ac}}{2a}

Then the general form of the roots is something like:

A +-\sqrt{B}

This means that if one of the roots is:

5 + √1, we must have another root equal to 5 - √1

And if we have one root equal to 4 - √7, then we must have another root equal to 4 + √7

Then the correct options are:

(5 - √1) and (4 + √7)

5 0
3 years ago
Prove that (I ,+) is an abelian group<br> where I = Set of integers
scoundrel [369]

Step-by-step explanation:

First we recall the relevant definitions and properties:

An even integer is an integer that is a multiple of 2, that is, an integer that can be written as 2k2k where kk is also an integer.

An abelian group is a set with an operation that is closed in that set, is associative, has an identity element, has inverses, and is commutative.

Addition is already associative and commutative over the set of all integers, and has an identity 00 and an inverse −n−n for each integer nn.

Oh, and multiplication of integers distributes over addition (this is important because we’re dealing with multiples of 2 but also with addition. The distributive property is how multiplication relates to addition).

This means we have to show a few things:

Addition is closed over the even integers. This holds due to the distributive property: if you have even integers 2k2k and 2m2m, then 2k+2m=2(k+m)2k+2m=2(k+m) is also an even integer. The odd integers fail this property: for example, 11 is odd but 1+1=21+1=2, which is not odd.

Addition is associative over the even integers. This holds because addition is already associative over the set of all integers: 2k+(2m+2j)=(2k+2m)+2j2k+(2m+2j)=(2k+2m)+2j. The odd integers do satisfy associativity, since they’re also a subset of the integers.

Addition has an identity element over the even integers. Since we already know that 00 is an identity for the set of all integers and 00 is even, this shows that we have an identity for the even integers: 2k+0=2k2k+0=2k. This doesn’t hold for the set of odd integers, because if nn and kk are odd integers and n+k=nn+k=n then k=0k=0, a contradiction since 00 is not odd.

Addition has inverses over the even integers. We already know that integers have inverses, and if 2k2k is an even integer then −k−k is the inverse of kk, so that 2k+2(−k)=2(k+(−k))=2(0)=02k+2(−k)=2(k+(−k))=2(0)=0. This means the even integer 2(−k)2(−k) is the inverse of 2k2k. The odd numbers do satisfy this property, since they’re also a subset of the integers.

Addition is commutative over the even integers. This holds because addition is already commutative over the set of all integers: 2k

6 0
3 years ago
Please help! Final grade of my semester!
Irina-Kira [14]

Answer:

12 visits is the BREAK EVEN POINT of two fitness plans.

Step-by-step explanation:

BREAK EVEN: A point is said to be break even in which, there is NO GAIN and NO LOSS.

Let us assume after m visits, he break even point is achieved.

Now, here at Fitness plan 1:

The charge per visit = $ 4

So, the total charge for m visit  = m x ( Cost per visit) = m ( $4)  = 4 m

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Now, here at Fitness plan 2:

The charge per visit = $ 2

Member ship fee = $24

So,  charge for m visit  = m x ( Cost per visit) = m ( $2)  = 2 m

Now,the total = Member ship fee + Fees for m visit  = $24 +  2 m

So, Fitness plan 2 costs (24 + 2 m) for m visits.

Now, for break even, For m visits, BOTH PLAN COSTS SAME:

⇒4  m = 24  +  2 m

or, 2 m = 24

or, m= 24/2  = 12

or, m = 12

or, after 12 visits, the both Plan will cost same amount,

Hence, 12 visits is the BREAK EVEN POINT of two fitness plans.

5 0
3 years ago
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