All categories

3 years ago

Anyone wanna play cod or 2k hop on rn

Mathematics

2 answers:

Thepotemich [5.8K]3 years ago

6 0

Answer:

Sure

Step-by-step explanation:

MA_775_DIABLO [31]3 years ago

3 0

Answer:

sure

Step-by-step explanation:

You might be interested in

A rectangle is shown. The length of the rectangle is labeled 18 inches. The width of the rectangle is labeled 6 inches.

Airida [17]

I think the answer is D.

3 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

The owner of a shop buys a bed at the price of Rp 1,700,000.00. Then he sells the bed at the price of Rp

Arte-miy333 [17]

Answer:

b. 20%

Step-by-step explanation:

The difference between 2,040,000.00 and 1,700,000.00 is 340,000

By process of elimination of the possible answers, 20% of 1,700,000.00 is 340,000; which shows that there was a 20% increase in profit.

4 0

2 years ago

The following triangle is an isosceles triangle. What is the length of the missing side?

OLga [1]

Considering that we have an isosceles triangle, the length of the missing side is of 11 inches.

<h3>What is an isosceles triangle?</h3>

An isosceles triangle is a triangle that has two congruent sides.

Researching this problem on the internet, the triangle has two sides of 4 in and 11 in, and one missing side. The missing side is opposite to the side of 4 in, with the same scale, hence the length of the missing side is of 11 inches.

More can be learned about isosceles triangles at brainly.com/question/11884412

#SPJ1

4 0

2 years ago

Please help me with this problem!!! No Links!

DerKrebs [107]

The answer is 17! Hope it helps :)

4 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

nventing is a difficult way to make money. Only 5% of new patents earn a substantial profit. A certain city has just had30 indep

Arlecino [84]

Answer:

$P(X \geq 2) = 1-P(X$

And we can find the individual probabilities using the probability mass function and we got:

$P(X=0) = (30C0) (0.05)^0 (1-0.05)^{30-0} =0.2146$

$P(X=1) = (30C1) (0.05)^1 (1-0.05)^{30-1} = 0.3389$

And replacing we got:

$P(X \geq 2) = 1-P(X$

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

$X \sim Binom(n=30, p=0.05)$

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

$P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}$

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

$nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}$

Solution to the problem

For this case we want this probability:

$P(X \geq 2)$

And we can use the complement rule and we got:

$P(X \geq 2) = 1-P(X$

And we can find the individual probabilities using the probability mass function and we got:

$P(X=0) = (30C0) (0.05)^0 (1-0.05)^{30-0} =0.2146$

$P(X=1) = (30C1) (0.05)^1 (1-0.05)^{30-1} = 0.3389$

And replacing we got:

$P(X \geq 2) = 1-P(X$

3 0

3 years ago